Danho
ZIMSEC A Level · 9198/2 · N2013

Business Studies Paper 2 November 2013

Questions
123
Total marks
250
Syllabus code
9198/2

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Questions
123
Pass mark
74
Sit this paper

Answer every question in the printed order, get marked at the end, then see the answers.

The questions

Question 101

[2 marks]elasticity of demand, marketing strategy and industrial relations
How is promotional elasticity of demand best defined?
  1. AResponsiveness of demand to a change in promotional spending
  2. BResponsiveness of demand to a change in the price of a rival
  3. CResponsiveness of supply to a change in promotional spending
  4. DResponsiveness of demand to a change in the consumer's income

Question 102

[2 marks]elasticity of demand, marketing strategy and industrial relations
A clothing firm raised its promotional spending by 20 per cent and its sales rose by 8 per cent. Calculate its promotional elasticity of demand.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 103

[2 marks]elasticity of demand, marketing strategy and industrial relations
A firm's promotional elasticity of demand is 0.4. What does that tell its management?
  1. AExtra promotion raises sales less than proportionately
  2. BExtra promotion raises sales more than proportionately
  3. CExtra promotion lowers the sales of the firm's own range
  4. DExtra promotion has no effect at all on the firm's sales

Question 104

[2 marks]elasticity of demand, marketing strategy and industrial relations
Average consumer incomes rose by 10 per cent and a clothing firm's sales rose by 10 per cent. Calculate its income elasticity of demand.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 105

[2 marks]elasticity of demand, marketing strategy and industrial relations
A product has a positive income elasticity of demand. How is that product classified?
  1. AA free good
  2. BA giffen good
  3. CA normal good
  4. DAn inferior good

Question 106

[2 marks]elasticity of demand, marketing strategy and industrial relations
A rival's clothing has an income elasticity of demand of 2 while a firm's own has 1. Incomes in the country are rising. What follows?
  1. AThe firm's sales will grow twice as fast
  2. BNeither firm's sales will change at all
  3. CBoth firms will lose sales as incomes rise
  4. DThe rival's sales will grow twice as fast

Question 107

[2 marks]elasticity of demand, marketing strategy and industrial relations
Promotion buys a firm a poor response while a rival gets twice the response from each dollar. What is the sounder marketing reply?
  1. AChange the kind of promotion and its targeting
  2. BStop all spending on promotion until sales recover
  3. CSpend far more on the same advertising
  4. DRaise prices to pay for more advertising

Question 108

[2 marks]elasticity of demand, marketing strategy and industrial relations
What does a manufacturer give up by choosing to operate at full capacity?
  1. AThe ability to meet an unexpected rise in orders
  2. BThe chance to lower its variable cost per unit
  3. CThe ability to spread fixed costs over output
  4. DThe right to negotiate new terms with its own workers

Question 109

[3 marks]elasticity of demand, marketing strategy and industrial relations
Workers are expected to resist a move to full capacity because it means a heavier workload. What is the cheapest and most effective response by management?
  1. AImpose the change and dismiss any worker who refuses it
  2. BConsult and negotiate before the change is introduced
  3. CWait for a strike and then call in an arbitrator
  4. DReplace the existing workers with new recruits

Question 110

[1 marks]elasticity of demand, marketing strategy and industrial relations
What is collective bargaining?
  1. AA ruling given by a labour officer on a pay claim
  2. BA ballot held among all the workers before a strike is called
  3. CNegotiation between management and workers' representatives
  4. DA meeting of shareholders to approve a wage rise

Question 111

[2 marks]elasticity of demand, marketing strategy and industrial relations
How does arbitration differ from conciliation in an industrial dispute?
  1. AThe arbitrator gives a decision on the dispute
  2. BThe arbitrator must be employed by the company
  3. CThe arbitrator represents the workers' interests
  4. DThe arbitrator only helps the parties to talk

Question 112

[2 marks]elasticity of demand, marketing strategy and industrial relations
What is a productivity agreement?
  1. AA deal linking higher pay to higher output
  2. BA promise by management not to make redundancies
  3. CA plan to move workers onto shorter hours
  4. DA guarantee of the same wage in every branch

Question 113

[1 marks]elasticity of demand, marketing strategy and industrial relations
Which measure relieves a heavier workload without adding to the wage bill?
  1. AA rise in the basic hourly rate of pay
  2. BJob rotation and better rest breaks
  3. CProfit sharing at the end of the year
  4. DA bonus paid on every extra unit made

Question 201

[2 marks]internal and external business environment
Which of these is an internal factor influencing a business's success?
  1. AThe rate of interest charged by banks
  2. BThe level of skill of its own workforce
  3. CThe rate of value added tax on its goods
  4. DThe number of rivals in its own market

Question 202

[2 marks]internal and external business environment
A new law raises the minimum wage a manufacturer must pay. Under which heading does this factor fall?
  1. ATechnological
  2. BPolitical and legal
  3. CCompetitive
  4. DSocial and demographic

Question 203

[2 marks]internal and external business environment
In a SWOT analysis, which pair of headings covers the external environment?
  1. AStrengths and weaknesses
  2. BWeaknesses and threats
  3. COpportunities and threats
  4. DStrengths and opportunities

Question 204

[2 marks]internal and external business environment
A firm imports most of its raw material. Which change would raise its input costs the most?
  1. AA fall in the value of the local currency
  2. BA fall in the country's rate of inflation
  3. CA rise in the value of the local currency
  4. DA rise in the school leaving age

Question 205

[2 marks]internal and external business environment
What is the main risk that technological change creates for a manufacturer?
  1. AIts suppliers will insist on cash on delivery
  2. BIts wage bill will rise beyond its budget
  3. CIts customers will begin to demand much longer credit terms
  4. DIts equipment becomes obsolete before it wears out

Question 206

[2 marks]internal and external business environment
Which of these is a demographic factor affecting a business?
  1. AThe rate of company taxation
  2. BThe gearing of the firm's balance sheet
  3. CThe age structure of the population
  4. DThe reliability of the power supply

Question 207

[3 marks]internal and external business environment
Why are internal factors often argued to be the more important influence on a firm's success?
  1. AThey are the factors management is able to change
  2. BThey are the only factors a SWOT analysis considers
  3. CThey are unaffected by the state of the economy
  4. DThey are always larger in money terms than external ones

Question 208

[2 marks]internal and external business environment
Why do external factors tend to dominate a firm's fortunes in the short run?
  1. AInternal factors matter only to very large firms
  2. BExternal factors are always favourable to a firm
  3. CInternal change takes time to plan and carry out
  4. DExternal factors are easier to forecast accurately

Question 209

[2 marks]internal and external business environment
Which firm is best insulated against a fall in demand in one market?
  1. AA small firm selling one product at home
  2. BA new firm selling one product abroad
  3. CA large firm selling many products in many markets
  4. DA medium sized firm selling one product to a single buyer

Question 210

[1 marks]internal and external business environment
Name the analysis that examines a firm's political, economic, social and technological environment.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 211

[2 marks]internal and external business environment
A firm's organisational culture and leadership style are best classified as which kind of factor?
  1. AEconomic
  2. BCompetitive
  3. CPolitical
  4. DInternal

Question 212

[2 marks]internal and external business environment
What does the competitive environment of a business include?
  1. AIts own gearing and its cash flow position
  2. BIts own management structure and culture
  3. CRivals, suppliers, buyers and new entrants
  4. DIts own product range and pricing policy

Question 213

[1 marks]internal and external business environment
Which is an example of a social factor changing a clothing firm's market?
  1. AA rise in the bank lending rate
  2. BA power cut at the firm's factory
  3. CA new import tariff on fabric
  4. DA change in tastes and lifestyles

Question 301

[1 marks]recruitment and performance appraisal
What is recruitment?
  1. AAttracting suitable applicants for a vacancy
  2. BSettling a new employee into the job
  3. CChoosing one applicant from a shortlist
  4. DAssessing an employee's performance over the year

Question 302

[2 marks]recruitment and performance appraisal
What does a person specification set out that a job description does not?
  1. AThe location at which the work is carried out
  2. BThe duties and the reporting line of the post
  3. CThe qualities and skills the holder must have
  4. DThe wage and the hours attached to the post

Question 303

[2 marks]recruitment and performance appraisal
What is the main advantage of recruiting internally?
  1. AIt widens the field of applicants considerably
  2. BThe candidate is known and settles in quickly
  3. CIt avoids the need for any selection process
  4. DIt brings fresh ideas into the organisation

Question 304

[2 marks]recruitment and performance appraisal
What is the main drawback of filling a post from inside the organisation?
  1. AIt takes longer than an external search
  2. BIt brings in no new skills or ideas
  3. CIt costs more than advertising externally
  4. DIt is forbidden by employment law

Question 305

[2 marks]recruitment and performance appraisal
Why do firms add tests and work samples to the selection interview?
  1. AInterviews cost more than any written test
  2. BInterviews are forbidden for senior posts
  3. CInterviews cannot lawfully be used on internal candidates
  4. DInterviews on their own predict performance poorly

Question 306

[2 marks]recruitment and performance appraisal
Which legal requirement most directly constrains how a vacancy is advertised?
  1. AThe duty to publish annual accounts
  2. BThe rules on paying value added tax
  3. CThe rules on depreciating fixed assets each year
  4. DThe law against discrimination in hiring

Question 307

[2 marks]recruitment and performance appraisal
What is performance appraisal?
  1. AA regular formal review of an employee against agreed standards
  2. BA survey asking customers to rate a firm's service
  3. CA ranking of every job by its worth to the employer
  4. DA yearly count of the hours that each employee has actually worked

Question 308

[3 marks]recruitment and performance appraisal
Why does appraisal matter more in a service business than in a factory?
  1. AService firms employ far fewer people overall
  2. BThe customer is present while the service is given
  3. CService staff are always paid on results
  4. DService firms are required by law to appraise staff

Question 309

[2 marks]recruitment and performance appraisal
An appraiser rates an employee highly on everything because they are impressed by one strength. What is this error called?
  1. AThe substitution effect
  2. BThe hierarchy effect
  3. CThe halo effect
  4. DThe multiplier effect

Question 310

[2 marks]recruitment and performance appraisal
A call centre rates its agents only on calls handled per hour. What is the likely result?
  1. AAgents refuse to answer any calls at all
  2. BAgents spend far longer on each customer
  3. CAgents end calls before the problem is settled
  4. DAgents pass every call they receive to their supervisor

Question 311

[2 marks]recruitment and performance appraisal
Besides judging performance, what does an appraisal interview most usefully produce?
  1. AA revised job description for the whole team
  2. BA ranking of every post in the organisation
  3. CA record of the employee's daily attendance
  4. DAn agreed plan of training and development

Question 312

[3 marks]recruitment and performance appraisal
Under which condition is a performance appraisal system most likely to work?
  1. AIt rests on one manager's private opinion
  2. BIt is used mainly as the first step on the way to dismissal
  3. CThe criteria are agreed in advance and appraisers trained
  4. DIt is held once every three or four years

Question 401

[2 marks]centralisation and worker participation
What does centralisation of decision making mean?
  1. AAll the firm's branches trade under one brand name
  2. BAuthority to decide is kept at the top of the firm
  3. CAll the firm's offices are housed on a single site
  4. DAuthority to decide is passed to branch managers

Question 402

[1 marks]centralisation and worker participation
What is delegation?
  1. ADividing a large department into smaller ones
  2. BPassing authority for a task to a subordinate
  3. CPassing responsibility for a result to a superior
  4. DDismissing a manager who has failed to deliver

Question 403

[2 marks]centralisation and worker participation
Which decision is normally kept at the centre even in a decentralised firm?
  1. AThe choice of a local delivery driver
  2. BThe reordering of stock in one shop
  3. CThe raising of capital for the whole group
  4. DThe rota for a branch's weekend counter staff

Question 404

[2 marks]centralisation and worker participation
Which condition most strongly favours decentralising decisions?
  1. AA crisis that threatens the firm's own survival
  2. BBranches spread across many distant towns
  3. CA product whose price is fixed by law
  4. DA single site with fifteen employees

Question 405

[2 marks]centralisation and worker participation
What is the main gain a bank makes by centralising its safety and security procedures?
  1. ALower training costs for junior managers
  2. BFaster decisions at every branch counter
  3. CThe same standard applied in every branch
  4. DGreater job satisfaction among the tellers

Question 406

[2 marks]centralisation and worker participation
How does delegation usually affect a junior manager's motivation?
  1. AIt falls, because supervision of the work becomes closer
  2. BIt is unchanged, since pay does not alter
  3. CIt rises, because responsibility is a motivator
  4. DIt falls, because the workload rises

Question 407

[2 marks]centralisation and worker participation
A leader who holds Theory X assumptions about workers is most likely to do which of these?
  1. ADelegate widely to junior managers
  2. BCentralise decisions and supervise closely
  3. CSet up a works council for regular consultation
  4. DIntroduce autonomous work groups

Question 408

[2 marks]centralisation and worker participation
What is worker participation?
  1. AAllowing workers to choose their own hours
  2. BInvolving employees in decisions that affect them
  3. CTraining workers to carry out several jobs
  4. DPaying workers a share of the profit earned in the year

Question 409

[1 marks]centralisation and worker participation
Which of these is a form of worker participation?
  1. AAn overtime rota
  2. BA quality circle
  3. CA redundancy payment
  4. DA piece rate scheme

Question 410

[3 marks]centralisation and worker participation
What is the largest single benefit of worker participation to a large business?
  1. AIt removes the need for any supervision
  2. BIt guarantees a rise in output every year
  3. CIt sharply reduces resistance to change
  4. DIt ends the need to pay overtime rates

Question 411

[2 marks]centralisation and worker participation
What is the main cost of consulting employees before a decision?
  1. AThe decision must be put to a vote
  2. BEmployees must be paid a bonus
  3. CThe decision cannot be reversed
  4. DThe decision takes longer to reach

Question 412

[2 marks]centralisation and worker participation
What did Mayo's Hawthorne studies show about involving workers?
  1. AOutput depended entirely on the piece rate that was paid
  2. BOutput fell whenever workers were consulted
  3. COutput rose only when lighting was improved
  4. DOutput rose when workers felt noticed and involved

Question 413

[2 marks]centralisation and worker participation
Why can consultation damage trust more than no consultation at all?
  1. AEmployees find the decision was already taken
  2. BEmployees receive information from a rival firm
  3. CEmployees learn how the firm's profits are shared
  4. DEmployees are asked to attend extra meetings

Question 501

[2 marks]new product development
What is the commonest cause of a new product failing?
  1. AIt was protected by a patent for too long
  2. BIt was priced above the cost of making it
  3. CIt was launched without evidence of demand
  4. DIt was sold through the firm's own outlets

Question 502

[2 marks]new product development
A firm's main products have all reached maturity. Why must it develop new ones?
  1. ASales of those products will eventually decline
  2. BSales of those products are the hardest to measure
  3. CMature products cannot be advertised
  4. DMature products cannot be sold on credit

Question 503

[2 marks]new product development
In the Boston matrix, which product normally funds the development of a question mark?
  1. AA cash cow
  2. BA dog
  3. CA new entrant
  4. DA star

Question 504

[2 marks]new product development
Which technique tells a firm whether a proposed new product is worth its development cost?
  1. AJob evaluation of the design department's posts
  2. BVariance analysis of last year's production costs
  3. CRatio analysis of the previous year's accounts
  4. DInvestment appraisal of the forecast cash flows

Question 505

[2 marks]new product development
What protection does a patent give the firm that develops a new product?
  1. AAn exemption from consumer protection law
  2. BA subsidy from government towards its cost
  3. CA right to stop others copying it for a period
  4. DA guarantee that the product will sell well abroad

Question 506

[2 marks]new product development
What is meant by cannibalisation in product development?
  1. AA new product takes sales from the firm's own range
  2. BA rival copies the firm's new design
  3. CA supplier raises the price of a component
  4. DA product is withdrawn shortly before it is launched

Question 507

[2 marks]new product development
In Ansoff's matrix, launching a new product to a firm's existing customers is called what?
  1. AMarket penetration
  2. BMarket development
  3. CUnrelated diversification
  4. DProduct development

Question 508

[2 marks]new product development
Why is developing a new product a particular danger to a small firm?
  1. ASmall firms are barred from holding patents
  2. BMost new products fail and the money is gone
  3. CNew products must be sold below their cost
  4. DSmall firms cannot carry out market research

Question 509

[3 marks]new product development
Why is product development described as a matter of survival rather than of growth alone?
  1. ABecause every product eventually declines
  2. BBecause the law requires firms to innovate
  3. CBecause it always lowers the unit cost
  4. DBecause rivals cannot copy a new product

Question 510

[2 marks]new product development
Why is the advantage won by a new product often temporary?
  1. ACustomers refuse to buy a product twice
  2. BRivals imitate it without paying the development cost
  3. CNew products cannot be advertised nationally
  4. DPatents are granted only to the largest firms in an industry

Question 511

[2 marks]new product development
In which industry is product development most nearly the whole basis of competition?
  1. APharmaceuticals
  2. BDomestic cleaning
  3. CCement manufacture
  4. DBuilders' merchants

Question 512

[2 marks]new product development
Which source of finance for product development suits an established firm best?
  1. ACash generated by its mature products
  2. BA short term loan from a moneylender
  3. CTrade credit taken from its suppliers
  4. DAn overdraft repayable on demand

Question 601

[2 marks]capital intensity and just-in-time production
What is capital intensive production?
  1. AProduction financed entirely by borrowing
  2. BProduction using labour for most of the work
  3. CProduction carried out by a single skilled worker
  4. DProduction using machinery for most of the work

Question 602

[2 marks]capital intensity and just-in-time production
Which change in costs most often pushes a firm from labour to machinery?
  1. AA rise in the rent charged for premises
  2. BA rise in wages and employment costs
  3. CA fall in the price of its raw material
  4. DA fall in the market rate of interest

Question 603

[2 marks]capital intensity and just-in-time production
How does the cost structure of a machine differ from that of the labour it replaces?
  1. AHigh fixed cost and low variable cost
  2. BHigh fixed cost and high variable cost
  3. CNo fixed cost and no variable cost
  4. DLow fixed cost and high variable cost

Question 604

[2 marks]capital intensity and just-in-time production
What quality gain does a firm expect from automating an operation?
  1. AMaterials become cheaper to buy in bulk from suppliers
  2. BFaults are found earlier by inspectors
  3. CEvery unit is made to the same tolerance
  4. DEvery unit can be made to order

Question 605

[2 marks]capital intensity and just-in-time production
Why is capital intensive production only economic above a certain output?
  1. ASkilled operators are unavailable at such a low output
  2. BMachines cannot run for more than one shift
  3. CThe heavy fixed cost must be spread over many units
  4. DRaw materials cost more when output is low

Question 606

[2 marks]capital intensity and just-in-time production
Which cost of switching to capital intensive production is most easily overlooked?
  1. AThe redundancy payments and lost goodwill
  2. BThe purchase price of the new equipment
  3. CThe interest charged on the loan raised
  4. DThe electricity used to run the new machines

Question 607

[2 marks]capital intensity and just-in-time production
What is Just In Time production?
  1. AProducing goods and receiving materials only as needed
  2. BOrdering all the materials once a year from one supplier
  3. CProducing goods well ahead of the delivery date
  4. DHolding a large buffer stock of every component

Question 608

[2 marks]capital intensity and just-in-time production
What is the largest financial gain a manufacturer makes from Just In Time?
  1. AThe price paid for raw materials falls
  2. BThe wage bill for the whole factory falls
  3. CThe rate of interest charged by its own bank falls
  4. DWorking capital tied up in stock is released

Question 609

[2 marks]capital intensity and just-in-time production
Which condition must be in place before Just In Time can work?
  1. AA single product made in very small batches
  2. BSuppliers delivering reliably and to specification
  3. CA large warehouse near the factory
  4. DA workforce paid entirely on piece rates

Question 610

[2 marks]capital intensity and just-in-time production
What is the main operational risk a firm accepts when it adopts Just In Time?
  1. AOne late delivery halts production immediately
  2. BMaterials will be bought at a higher price
  3. CStorage space will be left standing empty
  4. DStock will become obsolete before it is used

Question 611

[2 marks]capital intensity and just-in-time production
Which cost usually rises when a firm moves to Just In Time?
  1. AInterest on capital tied up in stock
  2. BDelivery cost, through frequent small loads
  3. CWages of the warehouse security staff
  4. DInsurance on the finished goods store

Question 612

[3 marks]capital intensity and just-in-time production
In which situation is Just In Time least appropriate?
  1. AQuality at every stage is already very high
  2. BDemand is steady and suppliers are close by
  3. CSupply is unreliable and a stockout is costly
  4. DThe workforce is flexible and multi skilled

Question 701

[2 marks]the need for finance and loan capital
What is working capital used for?
  1. ABuying land and buildings for the business
  2. BDistributing the year's profit to the shareholders
  3. CFunding day to day trading between paying and being paid
  4. DRepaying the capital borrowed on a long term loan

Question 702

[2 marks]the need for finance and loan capital
Why can a profitable business still be forced to close?
  1. AIt cannot find cash to meet debts as they fall due
  2. BIts profit is taxed at too high a rate
  3. CIts assets are worth more than its liabilities
  4. DIts shareholders refuse to take a dividend

Question 703

[2 marks]the need for finance and loan capital
What does start up capital pay for?
  1. AThe interest owed on the owner's own savings
  2. BCosts incurred before any revenue is earned
  3. CThe dividends owed in the first trading year
  4. DThe tax charged on the first year's profit

Question 704

[2 marks]the need for finance and loan capital
What does the matching principle in business finance require?
  1. AEvery sale is matched with a receipt
  2. BLong lived assets are funded by long term finance
  3. CEvery expense is matched by a bank transfer
  4. DAll finance is raised from a single lender

Question 705

[2 marks]the need for finance and loan capital
Why does a business need finance for replacement even when it is profitable?
  1. AAssets must be replaced every trading year
  2. BProfit cannot lawfully be spent on equipment
  3. COld assets must be sold at their original cost
  4. DDepreciation charged is not a fund of cash

Question 706

[2 marks]the need for finance and loan capital
What is loan capital?
  1. AMoney owed by customers who bought on credit
  2. BMoney left in the business out of past profits
  3. CMoney borrowed for a fixed period at agreed interest
  4. DMoney raised by selling shares to new investors

Question 707

[2 marks]the need for finance and loan capital
Why do the owners of a private company often prefer a loan to issuing shares?
  1. AA loan never has to be repaid in full
  2. BA lender gains no vote and no share of profit
  3. CA lender takes on part of the trading risk
  4. DA loan costs less than shares in every year

Question 708

[2 marks]the need for finance and loan capital
Why is the effective cost of loan interest lower than the rate charged?
  1. AInterest is paid only when profits are made
  2. BInterest is an allowable expense against tax
  3. CInterest is refunded once the loan is repaid
  4. DInterest is fixed for the life of every loan

Question 709

[2 marks]the need for finance and loan capital
What does the gearing of a business measure?
  1. AThe proportion of its assets that are current
  2. BThe proportion of its sales made on credit
  3. CThe proportion of its costs that are variable
  4. DThe proportion of its finance that is borrowed

Question 710

[2 marks]the need for finance and loan capital
What is the central risk a firm accepts when it takes on loan capital?
  1. AThe lender may demand a seat on the board
  2. BThe loan must be repaid out of the share capital
  3. CThe rate of interest can never be renegotiated
  4. DInterest and instalments fall due in a bad year too

Question 711

[2 marks]the need for finance and loan capital
What does a lender usually require before granting a long term loan?
  1. AA share of the company's voting rights
  2. BA guarantee of a minimum yearly profit
  3. CSecurity over an asset of the business
  4. DA seat for its own nominee on the board

Question 712

[3 marks]the need for finance and loan capital
Which use of loan capital is least appropriate?
  1. ABuying a machine whose life matches the loan term
  2. BBuying delivery vehicles repaid over five years
  3. CCovering a few weeks of seasonal cash shortage
  4. DBuilding a warehouse repaid over twenty years

Question 801

[2 marks]window dressing of accounts and budgetary control
What is window dressing of company accounts?
  1. APresenting the accounts to flatter the firm's position
  2. BPublishing the accounts later than the law allows
  3. CRefusing to let an auditor examine the records
  4. DPreparing accounts for each branch separately

Question 802

[2 marks]window dressing of accounts and budgetary control
Which pressure most often leads a company to dress up its balance sheet?
  1. AA wish to pay its suppliers more quickly
  2. BA duty to train its accounting staff
  3. CA plan to move to larger premises
  4. DA need to satisfy a lender's loan covenant

Question 803

[2 marks]window dressing of accounts and budgetary control
How does delaying payments to creditors until after the year end flatter the accounts?
  1. AIt removes the need to charge depreciation
  2. BIt lowers the value of the closing stock
  3. CIt raises the reported gross profit margin
  4. DIt leaves more cash in the reported figures

Question 804

[2 marks]window dressing of accounts and budgetary control
What does window dressing do to ratio analysis?
  1. AIt makes ratios unnecessary for lenders
  2. BIt makes ratios unreliable as a guide
  3. CIt makes ratios easier to calculate
  4. DIt makes ratios comparable between firms

Question 805

[2 marks]window dressing of accounts and budgetary control
What is a budget?
  1. AA forecast of the country's inflation rate
  2. BA statement of the firm's assets and debts
  3. CA record of last year's actual spending
  4. DA financial plan for a future period

Question 806

[2 marks]window dressing of accounts and budgetary control
What is budgetary control?
  1. AComparing actual results with budget and acting
  2. BSetting the budget for the following year
  3. CAuditing the budget before it is approved
  4. DRefusing any spending above the agreed budget

Question 807

[2 marks]window dressing of accounts and budgetary control
What does an adverse variance show?
  1. AActual cost was lower than the budget allowed
  2. BActual cost was higher than the budget allowed
  3. CThe budget was set by the manager responsible
  4. DThe budget was approved after the period began

Question 808

[2 marks]window dressing of accounts and budgetary control
What is management by exception?
  1. AExamining every item of expenditure each month
  2. BAllowing each manager to write their own budget
  3. CInvestigating only the results that differ from plan
  4. DExcusing a manager who misses an agreed target

Question 809

[3 marks]window dressing of accounts and budgetary control
Which budget is usually the most valuable to a manager, and why?
  1. AThe wages budget, because labour is the largest cost
  2. BThe cash budget, because a shortage of cash closes firms
  3. CThe sales budget, because revenue is the largest figure
  4. DThe capital budget, because assets last many years

Question 810

[2 marks]window dressing of accounts and budgetary control
What is budgetary slack?
  1. AA budget prepared later than the agreed date
  2. BAn allowance deliberately padded by the manager
  3. CAn overspend carried into the next period
  4. DA budget that has not yet been approved

Question 811

[2 marks]window dressing of accounts and budgetary control
What is the main weakness of incremental budgeting?
  1. AIt carries last year's waste forward
  2. BIt cannot be used by a service business
  3. CIt ignores the previous year's actual figures
  4. DIt requires every cost to be justified afresh

Question 812

[2 marks]window dressing of accounts and budgetary control
Why does a budget imposed from above often fail to motivate?
  1. AThe manager is not told what the target is
  2. BThe target is expressed in money terms
  3. CThe manager had no part in setting the target
  4. DThe target is reviewed part way through

Question 901

[2 marks]critical path analysis
What is the critical path through a network?
  1. AThe path holding the largest number of activities
  2. BThe path on which the most money is being spent
  3. CThe longest path, which fixes the project duration
  4. DThe shortest route between the first and last activity

Question 902

[2 marks]critical path analysis
Two paths meet at a node in a network. Which figure becomes that node's earliest start time?
  1. AThe smaller of the two arriving times
  2. BThe larger of the two arriving times
  3. CThe average of the two arriving times
  4. DThe sum of the two arriving times

Question 903

[2 marks]critical path analysis
How is the float on an activity calculated?
  1. ADuration less latest finish plus earliest start time
  2. BEarliest start time less duration less latest finish
  3. CLatest finish time plus duration plus earliest start
  4. DLatest finish time less duration less earliest start

Question 904

[3 marks]critical path analysis
A project has five activities. A takes 4 weeks and B takes 3 weeks, and both can start at once. C takes 5 weeks and follows A. D takes 2 weeks and follows B. E takes 3 weeks and can only start when both C and D are finished. Calculate the shortest time in which the project can be completed, in weeks.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 905

[2 marks]critical path analysis
In a project where A takes 4 weeks, C takes 5 weeks and follows A, B takes 3 weeks, D takes 2 weeks and follows B, and E takes 3 weeks and follows both C and D, which activities are critical?
  1. AA, B, C and D
  2. BA, C and E
  3. CA, B and E
  4. DB, D and E

Question 906

[2 marks]critical path analysis
In a project where A takes 4 weeks and C takes 5 weeks and follows A, while B takes 3 weeks and D takes 2 weeks and follows B, and E follows both C and D, calculate the total float shared by B and D, in weeks.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 907

[2 marks]critical path analysis
Why does spending money to shorten a non critical activity save no time?
  1. ANon critical activities cost more to shorten
  2. BThe project still waits on the critical path
  3. CNon critical activities cannot be shortened
  4. DThe float on the activity would then rise

Question 908

[2 marks]critical path analysis
What happens to the project when a critical activity runs two weeks late?
  1. AThe project duration is unaffected by it
  2. BThe following activity absorbs the two weeks
  3. CThe whole project finishes two weeks late
  4. DThe float on that activity falls by two weeks

Question 909

[2 marks]critical path analysis
How does a network help a firm order materials economically?
  1. AIt removes the need to hold any stock at all
  2. BIt shows when each activity's materials are needed
  3. CIt fixes the price the supplier may charge
  4. DIt sets the discount available for bulk orders

Question 910

[2 marks]critical path analysis
What is the central weakness of critical path analysis?
  1. AIt rests on estimates of how long each activity takes
  2. BIt cannot be drawn for a project of many activities
  3. CIt gives no indication of the project's duration
  4. DIt cannot show activities running at the same time

Question 911

[2 marks]critical path analysis
For which kind of work is critical path analysis most worth the effort?
  1. ARepetitive daily production of one item
  2. BRoutine clerical work in a small office
  3. CA small job of three or four simple steps
  4. DA large one off project with a firm deadline

Question 912

[2 marks]critical path analysis
Why is critical path analysis described as an aid rather than a decision maker?
  1. ANothing changes unless managers act on it
  2. BIt applies only to projects funded by loans
  3. CIt cannot be updated once the project starts
  4. DIt produces no figures a manager can use

Question 1001

[2 marks]presentation of statistical data
Which method best shows a firm's monthly sales over five years?
  1. AA pictogram
  2. BA line graph
  3. CA pie chart
  4. DA pie diagram

Question 1002

[2 marks]presentation of statistical data
For which purpose is a pie chart the appropriate choice?
  1. AShowing how one total divides into its parts
  2. BShowing how a figure has changed over ten years
  3. CShowing the relationship between two variables
  4. DShowing the exact value of every figure quoted

Question 1003

[2 marks]presentation of statistical data
What does a histogram do that a bar chart does not?
  1. AIt shows the make up of each total
  2. BIt handles unequal class widths correctly
  3. CIt shows the exact figure above each bar
  4. DIt shows several categories side by side

Question 1004

[2 marks]presentation of statistical data
A scatter diagram shows advertising spending rising with sales. What does it prove?
  1. AThat sales would fall without advertising
  2. BThat advertising causes the rise in sales
  3. CThat the advertising was worth its cost
  4. DThat the two figures move together

Question 1005

[2 marks]presentation of statistical data
What is the effect of drawing a bar chart whose vertical axis does not start at zero?
  1. ASmall differences look far larger
  2. BThe chart shows the total of the bars
  3. CSmall differences disappear entirely
  4. DThe bars become impossible to compare

Question 1006

[2 marks]presentation of statistical data
What is the main weakness of a pictogram?
  1. AIt cannot be understood without training
  2. BIt cannot be printed in an annual report
  3. CPart symbols cannot be read precisely
  4. DIt cannot show more than two categories

Question 1007

[2 marks]presentation of statistical data
When is a table the right way to present figures?
  1. AWhen the audience is a general one
  2. BWhen a strong impression is wanted
  3. CWhen only a trend needs to be shown
  4. DWhen exact values must be read off

Question 1008

[2 marks]presentation of statistical data
What does a component, or stacked, bar chart show?
  1. AThe median and quartiles of a set of values
  2. BThe make up of each total as well as its size
  3. CThe frequency of a continuous distribution
  4. DThe relationship between two measured variables

Question 1009

[2 marks]presentation of statistical data
Which figures does a cumulative frequency curve give directly?
  1. AThe mean and the standard deviation
  2. BThe range and the arithmetic mean
  3. CThe mode and the total frequency
  4. DThe median and the quartiles

Question 1010

[3 marks]presentation of statistical data
On what does the choice of presentation method mainly depend?
  1. AThe software the analyst happens to own
  2. BThe size of the firm collecting the data
  3. CThe cost of printing the finished report
  4. DThe type of data and the audience for it

Question 1011

[2 marks]presentation of statistical data
Why does presenting data well not make a poor sample reliable?
  1. AA chart cannot show a sample's size
  2. BA biased sample stays biased when drawn
  3. CCharts are read less carefully than tables
  4. DSoftware cannot draw a small sample

Question 1012

[2 marks]presentation of statistical data
Why does a pie chart with twelve segments fail?
  1. AThe chart shows only the largest segment
  2. BThe chart cannot be drawn by software
  3. CThe segments no longer sum to the total
  4. DSimilar segments cannot be told apart

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