Danho
ZIMSEC O Level · 4003/2 · J2019

Combined Science Paper 2 June 2019

Questions
94
Total marks
130
Syllabus code
4003/2

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Questions
94
Pass mark
57
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Answer every question in the printed order, get marked at the end, then see the answers.

The questions

Section A

Section A, Question 1

[2 marks]Biology
Which statement gives a correct difference between an insect pollinated flower and a wind pollinated flower?
  1. AInsect pollinated flowers produce large amounts of light, smooth pollen, while wind pollinated flowers produce a little sticky pollen.
  2. BInsect pollinated flowers have long, loosely attached anthers hanging outside, while wind pollinated flowers have small enclosed anthers.
  3. CInsect pollinated flowers have large, brightly coloured petals, while wind pollinated flowers have small petals or none at all.
  4. DInsect pollinated flowers have feathery stigmas hanging outside the flower, while wind pollinated flowers keep the stigma enclosed.
[1 marks]Biology
During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide reacts with one other raw material taken up from the soil to produce glucose and oxygen. Name that raw material.

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[1 marks]Biology
State one condition that a green plant needs before photosynthesis can take place.

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[2 marks]Biology
A leaf makes more glucose during the day than its cells can use at once. What happens to the extra glucose?
  1. AIt is changed into starch for storage in the leaf, and later moved as sucrose to other parts of the plant.
  2. BIt is stored as glucose in the leaf cells, because glucose has no effect on the water balance of a cell.
  3. CIt passes into the xylem and is carried upwards in the transpiration stream to the growing shoot tips.
  4. DIt is broken down again into carbon dioxide and water inside the chloroplasts, and is lost through the stomata.

Section A, Question 2

[2 marks]Biology
Which statement correctly describes a difference between sexual and asexual reproduction in plants?
  1. ASexual reproduction involves fertilisation and produces offspring that show genetic variation, while asexual reproduction does neither.
  2. BSexual reproduction needs one parent plant and a seed, while asexual reproduction needs two parent plants of the same species.
  3. CAsexual reproduction involves fertilisation of a gamete, while sexual reproduction produces offspring from a part of the parent plant.
  4. DAsexual reproduction produces offspring showing genetic variation, while sexual reproduction produces offspring identical to the parent.
[2 marks]Biology
Which statement correctly distinguishes passive immunity from active immunity?
  1. APassive immunity follows a vaccination, while active immunity develops after a person has had an attack of the disease itself.
  2. BPassive immunity is produced by white blood cells in the bone marrow, while active immunity is produced by antibodies in the blood plasma.
  3. CPassive immunity is short lived because the antibodies are received ready made, while active immunity is long lived because the body makes its own antibodies.
  4. DPassive immunity is long lived because the body makes its own antibodies, while active immunity is short lived because the ready made antibodies are received from someone else.
[2 marks]Biology
What is meant by natural immunity?
  1. AResistance to infection that comes from the body's own processes, without any help from medicine or vaccination.
  2. BResistance to infection that follows an injection of a vaccine containing a weakened form of the pathogen.
  3. CResistance to infection produced by a course of antibiotics taken until the last of the pathogens is killed.
  4. DResistance to infection that comes from eating a balanced diet with enough vitamins and mineral salts each day.
[1 marks]Biology
Name the organism which causes malaria.

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Section A, Question 3

[2 marks]Chemistry
Methane (CH4) is the simplest alkane. Name the two elements found in methane.

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[1 marks]Chemistry
State the type of bond formed between the carbon atom and the hydrogen atoms in a molecule of methane (CH4).

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[1 marks]Chemistry
Alkenes are more reactive than alkanes because
  1. Aalkenes are made of carbon and hydrogen while alkanes contain oxygen as well, which makes the alkanes more stable.
  2. Balkenes contain a carbon to carbon double bond and are unsaturated, while alkanes are saturated with single bonds.
  3. Calkenes contain more hydrogen atoms for each carbon atom than alkanes, so their molecules are held together less tightly.
  4. Dalkenes have larger molecules with higher boiling points than alkanes, so they take part in reactions more easily.

Section A, Question 4

[1 marks]Chemistry
Haematite, the ore fed into the blast furnace, contains iron(III) oxide. Write the chemical formula of iron(III) oxide.

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[1 marks]Chemistry
Limestone is one of the raw materials fed into the blast furnace. Write the chemical formula of limestone.

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[2 marks]Chemistry
Stainless steel is an alloy of iron with two other metals. Name the two metals.

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[2 marks]Chemistry
Sinks and medical instruments are made of stainless steel. Which property of stainless steel makes it suitable for these uses?
  1. AIt resists corrosion, so it does not rust when it is left in contact with water or with body fluids.
  2. BIt has a low density, so a sink or an instrument made from it weighs much less than one made from pure iron.
  3. CIt has a low melting point, so it can be shaped into sinks and instruments without the need for a hot furnace.
  4. DIt conducts heat poorly, so a sink full of hot water stays warm much longer than one made of ordinary iron.
[1 marks]Chemistry
State one way of protecting iron from rusting, other than making it into an alloy.

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Section A, Question 5

[2 marks]Physics
A long straight vertical wire carries a current. Which describes the magnetic field around the wire?
  1. AStraight lines running parallel to the wire in the same direction as the current, spreading out as the distance grows.
  2. BCircles lying in planes that contain the wire, running from the top of the wire to the bottom as in a bar magnet.
  3. CStraight lines pointing away from the wire in every direction, in much the same pattern as the field around a small positive charge.
  4. DCircles centred on the wire, lying in planes at right angles to it, with their direction given by the right hand grip rule.
[2 marks]Physics
A straight wire lies horizontally between the north pole and the south pole of two magnets, and is connected in series with a battery and a switch. What happens when the switch is closed, and why?
  1. AThe wire becomes hot and glows, because the field of the magnets forces the current through a much smaller cross section.
  2. BThe wire swings to and fro, because the magnetic field around the current carrying wire reverses many times each second.
  3. CThe wire stays still, because the magnetic field of the current is far too weak to affect the field of the permanent magnets.
  4. DThe wire moves, because the magnetic field around the current carrying wire interacts with the field of the permanent magnets.
[2 marks]Physics
A wire carrying a current between the poles of two magnets is pushed in a certain direction. The battery terminals are then reversed and the switch is closed again. What is observed, and why?
  1. AThe wire is pushed with a much larger force in the same direction, because the two magnetic fields now add together.
  2. BThe wire is not pushed at all, because the reversed current cancels out the field of the permanent magnets.
  3. CThe wire is pushed in the opposite direction, because reversing the current reverses the magnetic field around the wire.
  4. DThe wire is pushed in exactly the same direction as before, because the field of the permanent magnets has not been changed at all.
[1 marks]Physics
Give one everyday application of the force produced when a current carrying wire is placed in a magnetic field.

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Section A, Question 6

[1 marks]Physics
The weight of a body is best defined as
  1. Athe amount of matter contained in the body, measured in kilograms on a balance.
  2. Bthe gravitational force acting on the body because of the mass it contains.
  3. Cthe force the body exerts on each square metre of the surface it rests on.
  4. Dthe product of the mass of the body and the velocity at which it is moving.
[1 marks]Physics
State what pressure is defined as, in terms of force and area.

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[2 marks]Physics
A box of weight 20 N rests on a table on a face measuring 0.5 m by 0.6 m. Calculate the pressure the box exerts on the table, in N/m2.

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[2 marks]Physics
A box of weight 20 N rests on a table on a face measuring 0.5 m by 0.6 m. It is then stood on a smaller face measuring 0.3 m by 0.5 m. How does the pressure on the table compare?
  1. AThe pressure is greater on the 0.3 m by 0.5 m face, because standing the box on end increases the weight acting down.
  2. BThe pressure is smaller on the 0.3 m by 0.5 m face, because the weight of the box is spread over a smaller area.
  3. CThe pressure is the same on both faces, because the weight of the box itself has not been changed by turning it.
  4. DThe pressure is greater on the 0.3 m by 0.5 m face, because the same weight now acts over a smaller area of contact.
[1 marks]Physics
Name the instrument used to measure the pressure of a fluid such as a gas supply.

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Section B

Section B, Question 7

[2 marks]Biology
Which sexually transmitted infection is correctly paired with the type of organism that causes it?
  1. ASyphilis, which is caused by a protozoan carried in the blood from one person to another.
  2. BGenital herpes, which is caused by a bacterium and is cured by a course of antibiotics.
  3. CGonorrhoea, which is caused by a fungus growing on the lining of the reproductive tract.
  4. DGenital warts, which are caused by a virus passed on during sexual contact.
[1 marks]Biology
Name one sexually transmitted infection that is caused by a bacterium.

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[1 marks]Biology
State the type of organism that causes HIV and AIDS.

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[1 marks]Biology
Name the solution given by mouth to a cholera patient to replace the fluids and salts lost through diarrhoea.

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[2 marks]Biology
Why is a cholera patient given oral rehydration solution or a saline drip?
  1. AIt replaces the water and salts lost through severe diarrhoea and vomiting, which would otherwise cause dehydration.
  2. BIt kills the bacteria living in the small intestine, so that the patient stops producing the watery diarrhoea.
  3. CIt neutralises the toxin released by the bacteria, so that the walls of the intestine can absorb food again.
  4. DIt coats the whole lining of the intestine with a layer of salt, so that no further bacteria can be taken in with food or water.
[1 marks]Biology
Name the type of drug given to a cholera patient to kill the bacteria causing the disease.

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[1 marks]Biology
Name the lung disease, caused by tobacco smoke, in which the walls of the alveoli break down so that the surface for gas exchange is reduced.

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[1 marks]Biology
Tobacco smoke contains carbon monoxide, which combines with haemoglobin in the red blood cells. Name the gas that the blood is then less able to carry.

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Section B, Question 8

[1 marks]Biology
Blood carries oxygen, digested food and hormones from one part of the body to another. State this function of blood in one word.

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[1 marks]Biology
White blood cells engulf pathogens and produce antibodies. State this function of blood in one word.

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[1 marks]Biology
Blood helps to keep the temperature and the water content of the body steady. Name this function of blood.

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[2 marks]Biology
Which statement correctly describes a structural difference between an artery and a vein?
  1. AAn artery is lined with valves along its whole length, while a vein has a single valve where it enters the heart.
  2. BAn artery is made of one layer of flattened cells, while a vein has several layers of muscle and elastic tissue.
  3. CAn artery has a narrow lumen and a thick muscular wall, while a vein has a wide lumen and a much thinner wall.
  4. DAn artery has a wide lumen and a thin wall, while a vein has a narrow lumen and a thick muscular wall.
[1 marks]Biology
Name the structures found inside veins, but not along the length of arteries, which stop blood from flowing backwards.

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[1 marks]Biology
Name the waxy, waterproof layer covering the upper surface of a leaf, which reduces water loss.

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[1 marks]Biology
Name the small pores in a leaf through which water vapour is lost.

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[2 marks]Biology
Many plants have far fewer stomata on the upper surface of a leaf than on the lower surface. How does this help the plant?
  1. AIt keeps the upper surface flat and smooth, so that rain water runs off the leaf instead of soaking into it.
  2. BIt reduces water loss, because the upper surface is hotter in the sun and water evaporates fastest from there.
  3. CIt lets the upper surface absorb more light, because open stomata block the light reaching the chloroplasts.
  4. DIt stops carbon dioxide escaping from the leaf, so that more of it is left in the air spaces for photosynthesis.

Section B, Question 9

[1 marks]Biology
In the carbon cycle, green plants take in carbon dioxide and combine it with water to make carbohydrates. Name this process.

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[1 marks]Biology
Name the process, carried out by plants and animals alike, which returns carbon dioxide to the atmosphere at all times of day and night.

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[2 marks]Biology
Which statement describes how carbon dioxide is removed from the air and returned to it in the carbon cycle?
  1. AIt is removed by respiration in green plants and returned by photosynthesis in animals and in decaying matter.
  2. BIt is removed by evaporation from the leaves of green plants and returned when rain washes it back out of the atmosphere.
  3. CIt is removed when fuels are burned in air and returned by the photosynthesis of green plants during daylight.
  4. DIt is removed by photosynthesis in green plants and returned by respiration, by decay and by the burning of fuels.
[1 marks]Biology
Name the process, carried out by bacteria in poorly aerated soil, which releases nitrogen gas from nitrates into the atmosphere.

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[2 marks]Biology
Which pair of processes both remove nitrogen gas from the atmosphere?
  1. APhotosynthesis in green plants, and the decay of dead material by soil bacteria.
  2. BDenitrification by soil bacteria, and the burning of fuels in air.
  3. CRespiration by animals, and the evaporation of water from the leaves of plants.
  4. DLightning in a thunderstorm, and nitrogen fixation by bacteria in root nodules.
[2 marks]Biology
A farmer grows a single crop over a very large area, season after season. Which problems are likely to follow from this limited biodiversity?
  1. ASoil fertility rises while pests become fewer, because the same crop returns the same nutrients to the soil each season.
  2. BSoil fertility falls and pests and diseases of that crop build up, because the same species is grown there each season.
  3. CSoil fertility falls but pests and diseases become rarer, because the pests of other crops then have nothing to feed on.
  4. DSoil fertility stays the same, but the crop plants grow more slowly because they compete with each other for light.
[1 marks]Biology
Which is an advantage of a community with a wide biodiversity?
  1. AIt keeps the number of predators low, because a predator feeds on a single species of prey at a time.
  2. BIt uses less water than a community of a single species, because the plants shade one another from the sun.
  3. CIt grows to the same height everywhere, because the different species all reach maturity at the same time.
  4. DIt offers a wide variety of food sources and sustains itself, and disease spreads less easily through it.

Section C

Section C, Question 10

[1 marks]Chemistry
Fermentation of glucose produces a dilute solution of ethanol in water. Name the physical process used to obtain pure ethanol from this mixture.

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[1 marks]Chemistry
Fractional distillation separates a mixture of two liquids by making use of a difference in their
  1. Asolubilities in water, so that one of the liquids dissolves while the other is left behind.
  2. Bdensities, so that the denser of the two liquids sinks to the bottom and is run off first.
  3. Cfreezing points, so that one of the liquids becomes a solid and can then be filtered off.
  4. Dboiling points, so that the liquid with the lower boiling point evaporates off first.
[2 marks]Chemistry
In the fractional distillation of a mixture of ethanol and water, what happens in the fractionating column?
  1. AThe mixture is heated so strongly that both liquids boil together and pass on to the condenser as one.
  2. BWater vapour condenses on the beads and runs back down, while ethanol vapour passes on to the condenser.
  3. CEthanol vapour condenses on the beads and runs back down, while water vapour passes on to the condenser.
  4. DBoth vapours condense on the beads and run back down, so that nothing but air reaches the condenser.
[1 marks]Chemistry
Ethanol is separated from water by fractional distillation. State the boiling point of ethanol, in degrees Celsius.

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[1 marks]Chemistry
State one use of ethanol.

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[2 marks]Chemistry
Calculate the molecular mass of ethanol, C2H5OH. (Relative atomic masses: H = 1, C = 12, O = 16.)

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[2 marks]Chemistry
Ethanol, C2H5OH, has a molecular mass of 46. Calculate the percentage of carbon in ethanol. (Relative atomic mass of C = 12.)

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Section C, Question 11

[1 marks]Chemistry
The mass number of potassium is 39 and its proton number is 19. State the number of electrons in a neutral potassium atom.

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[1 marks]Chemistry
The mass number of potassium is 39 and its proton number is 19. Determine the number of neutrons in a potassium atom.

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[1 marks]Chemistry
Potassium reacts with fluorine by donating electrons. State the number of electrons donated by one potassium atom.

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[1 marks]Chemistry
A potassium atom donates one electron when it reacts with fluorine. State the charge on the potassium ion that is formed.

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[1 marks]Chemistry
Potassium has a valency of 1 and fluorine has a valency of 1. Write the formula of potassium fluoride.

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[1 marks]Chemistry
Potassium fluoride is an ionic compound. Which is a physical property of potassium fluoride?
  1. AIt dissolves readily in water and has a high melting point, because strong forces hold its ions together.
  2. BIt does not dissolve in water and has a low melting point, because its particles are held by weak forces.
  3. CIt conducts electricity while it is solid, because its ions are free to move through the crystal lattice.
  4. DIt burns readily in air with a bright lilac flame, because potassium metal is still present in the lattice.
[1 marks]Chemistry
A solution has a volume of 250 cm3. Express this volume in dm3.

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[1 marks]Chemistry
Which expression gives the number of moles of solute in a solution?
  1. Athe concentration in mol/dm3 multiplied by the volume of the solution in dm3
  2. Bthe concentration in mol/dm3 multiplied by the volume of the solution in cm3
  3. Cthe concentration in mol/dm3 divided by the volume of the solution in dm3
  4. Dthe volume of the solution in dm3 divided by the concentration in mol/dm3
[2 marks]Chemistry
Sodium hydroxide solution has a concentration of 0.5 mol/dm3. Calculate the number of moles of sodium hydroxide in 250 cm3 of the solution.

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Section C, Question 12

[1 marks]Chemistry
A metal is added to dilute sulphuric acid and bubbles of gas are given off. Name the gas.

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[2 marks]Chemistry
Four different metals are each added to separate samples of dilute sulphuric acid and left for three minutes. How is the most reactive metal identified?
  1. AIt is the one that produces the greatest number of bubbles in the three minutes, because it reacts fastest with the acid.
  2. BIt is the one that changes colour in the acid, because a colour change shows the metal has taken in the most acid of the four.
  3. CIt is the one that produces no bubbles at all in the three minutes, because the acid has already used it up.
  4. DIt is the one that sinks to the bottom of the acid, because the heaviest metal holds the most energy to react.
[2 marks]Chemistry
Copper, calcium, lead and zinc are each added to dilute sulphuric acid. What is observed with the copper, and why?
  1. AIt reacts faster than any of the other three metals, because copper lies above hydrogen in the reactivity series.
  2. BIt gives off gas slowly at first and then much faster, because the heat released warms the acid as the reaction goes on.
  3. CIt gives off no gas at all, because copper lies below hydrogen in the reactivity series and does not react with dilute acids.
  4. DIt dissolves away quietly with no gas at all given off, because the copper reacts to form a blue solution of copper sulphate.
[1 marks]Chemistry
Name one alloy of copper.

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[1 marks]Chemistry
Name the metal used to galvanise iron.

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[1 marks]Chemistry
A compound is best described as
  1. Aa substance made up of atoms that all contain the same number of protons in their nuclei.
  2. Ba substance that can be separated into its parts by filtering it or by using a magnet on it.
  3. Ca substance made up of two or more elements chemically combined together in fixed proportions.
  4. Da substance made up of two or more different elements simply mixed together in any proportion that is wanted.
[2 marks]Chemistry
Copper is heated with zinc oxide but no reaction takes place. Why?
  1. AZinc oxide melts at a far higher temperature than copper does, so the two substances cannot mix while solid.
  2. BCopper is less reactive than zinc, so it cannot take the oxygen from zinc oxide and displace the zinc.
  3. CCopper has already combined with the oxygen of the air, so none of it is left to react with the zinc oxide.
  4. DZinc oxide is an acidic oxide while copper is a metal, so the two of them are not able to react together.

Section D

Section D, Question 13

[1 marks]Physics
A machine is best described as
  1. Aa device that gives out more energy at its output than is supplied to it at its input.
  2. Ba device that increases the amount of work done, so that less energy is needed for a job.
  3. Ca device that makes work easier, for example by letting a small effort raise a large load.
  4. Da device that changes electrical energy into movement, such as a motor turning a wheel.
[1 marks]Physics
In a pulley system, two sections of rope support the moving pulley that carries the load. State the velocity ratio of the system.

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[2 marks]Physics
A pulley system has a velocity ratio of 2 and an efficiency of 75%. Calculate its mechanical advantage.

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[1 marks]Physics
Name the wire connected to the metal casing of an appliance so that current can flow safely to the ground if a fault occurs.

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[2 marks]Physics
How does an earth wire act as a safety device on an appliance with a metal casing?
  1. AIt raises the resistance of the metal casing, so that a very small current passes through anyone who touches it.
  2. BIt carries current from the casing to the ground along a path of very low resistance, instead of through the person touching it.
  3. CIt cuts off the supply to the whole appliance as soon as the metal casing becomes live, by melting through at its own thinnest point.
  4. DIt stores the extra charge that builds up on the metal casing and releases it slowly, so the user feels no shock.
[1 marks]Physics
State the term for the amount of matter contained in a body.

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[1 marks]Physics
State the term for the force of gravity acting on a body.

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[1 marks]Physics
State the term for the product of the mass of a body and its velocity.

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Section D, Question 14

[1 marks]Physics
Name the instrument, with a fixed main scale and a sliding scale, used to measure the length of a small glass rod to the nearest 0.01 cm.

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[1 marks]Physics
Newton's third law of motion states that
  1. Athe momentum of a body is found by multiplying its mass by the velocity at which it travels.
  2. Bfor every action force there is an equal and opposite reaction force, acting on the other body.
  3. Ca body stays at rest, or keeps moving at a steady speed, unless a resultant force acts upon it.
  4. Dthe acceleration of a body is proportional to the resultant force that acts upon it.
[2 marks]Physics
A person sits on a chair. How is this explained by Newton's third law of motion?
  1. AThe person presses down on the chair, and the chair presses up on the person with an equal and opposite force.
  2. BThe person presses down on the chair with a force larger than the upward push of the chair, so the person stays seated.
  3. CThe chair presses up on the person with a force larger than the person's weight, which is why the person does not fall.
  4. DThe person's weight acts on the chair while the chair's weight acts on the floor, and these two forces are equal in size.
[2 marks]Physics
A force of 300 N pulls an object of mass 60 kg along a horizontal surface. Calculate the acceleration of the object, in m/s2.

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[1 marks]Physics
A force of 300 N pulls a 60 kg object along a horizontal surface, giving a calculated acceleration of 5 m/s2. How does this compare with the acceleration measured in practice?
  1. AIt is the same as the practical value, because the mass of the object does not change while it is pulled.
  2. BIt is higher than the practical value, because the calculation takes no account of friction with the surface.
  3. CIt is lower than the practical value, because the calculation takes no account of the weight pressing down.
  4. DIt is lower than the practical value, because part of the 300 N is used in lifting the object off the surface.
[1 marks]Physics
Name the instrument connected across a wire to measure the potential difference across it.

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[1 marks]Physics
A wire in a circuit is replaced by a longer wire of the same material and the same thickness. What is the effect on the resistance?
  1. AThe resistance rises, because the electrons meet more opposition along the greater length of wire.
  2. BThe resistance falls, because the current is spread out over a greater length of the same thickness.
  3. CThe resistance falls, because the electrons have more room to move along the greater length of wire.
  4. DThe resistance stays the same, because it depends on the material of the wire and not on its length.

Section D, Question 15

[1 marks]Physics
Name the transmission medium that carries signals as pulses of light along a thin strand of glass.

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[1 marks]Physics
Name the cable, made of a central copper core surrounded by insulation and a braided metal screen, used to carry signals.

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[1 marks]Physics
Name the medium that carries signals through space as radio waves, with no cable between the sender and the receiver.

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[2 marks]Physics
How is a telephone call carried along an optical fibre?
  1. AThe signal is carried by the glass fibre itself as a vibration, which is turned back into sound by a thin metal sheet at the receiver.
  2. BThe signal is changed into pulses of light, which travel along the fibre and are changed back to the original signal at the receiver.
  3. CThe signal is changed into electrical pulses, which travel along a copper core inside the fibre and are amplified at the receiver.
  4. DThe signal is changed into radio waves, which travel through the air beside the fibre and are picked up by an aerial at the receiver.
[1 marks]Physics
In an optical fibre system, the original signal is changed into pulses of what before it is sent along the fibre?

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[1 marks]Physics
The function of a decoder in a communication system is to
  1. Aincrease the strength of a weak signal after it has travelled a long way along a cable.
  2. Bchange a signal from one language into another before it is passed on to the receiver.
  3. Cseparate the actual signal from the carrier wave that brought it, so the message can be used.
  4. Dcombine the actual signal with a carrier wave, so that it can then be sent out over a long distance.
[2 marks]Physics
Which is an advantage of e-mail over ordinary posted mail?
  1. AA message can carry a handwritten signature, which an ordinary posted letter is not able to do.
  2. BA message is stored on paper at the post office, so a copy can be collected if it is lost.
  3. CA message reaches the person it is sent to within seconds, rather than in days or in weeks.
  4. DA message can be sent to a person who has no electricity and no telephone network at home.
[1 marks]Physics
How does the cost of sending an e-mail change with the distance it travels?
  1. AIt falls as the distance grows, because a longer route passes through more exchanges that share the cost.
  2. BIt rises sharply once the message crosses a national border, because a second network has to be paid.
  3. CIt rises steadily with distance, in the same way as the postage charged on an ordinary letter.
  4. DIt stays the same whatever the distance, so a message across the world costs no more than one next door.

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