Danho
ZIMSEC A Level · 6032/3 · J2023

Physics Paper 3 June 2023

Questions
60
Total marks
125
Syllabus code
6032/3

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Questions
60
Pass mark
36
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Answer every question in the printed order, get marked at the end, then see the answers.

The questions

Question 101

[2 marks]measurement, errors and kinematics
A student repeats a measurement many times using an instrument that has not been checked for a zero error. Which statement correctly describes how random and systematic errors affect the set of readings obtained?
  1. ARandom errors scatter the readings on either side of the true value and are reduced by averaging, while a systematic error shifts every reading the same way and is not.
  2. BRandom errors shift every reading by the same amount in the same direction, while a systematic error scatters the readings on either side of the true value.
  3. CRandom errors and systematic errors both scatter the readings on either side of the true value, and averaging enough readings removes each of them.
  4. DRandom errors affect only the last digit of a reading, while a systematic error changes the size of the physical quantity that is being measured.

Question 102

[1 marks]measurement, errors and kinematics
A ball has a diameter of about 2.15 mm. Name the laboratory instrument that should be used to measure this diameter to the nearest 0.01 mm.

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Question 103

[3 marks]measurement, errors and kinematics
A spherical ball has mass 0.06 g and diameter 2.15 mm. Taking the volume of a sphere as (pi/6)d^3, calculate the density of the ball in kg m^-3.

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Question 104

[1 marks]measurement, errors and kinematics
The mass of a ball is measured to +/- 1 per cent and its diameter to +/- 3 per cent. The density is calculated as mass divided by volume, and the volume depends on the cube of the diameter. What is the percentage uncertainty in the calculated density?

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Question 105

[2 marks]measurement, errors and kinematics
Consider the following five physical quantities: electric charge, magnetic flux density, gravitational potential, decay constant and electric field strength. Which pair of them are vector quantities?
  1. AElectric charge and gravitational potential, since each of them is defined as a quantity taken per unit mass or per unit charge.
  2. BMagnetic flux density and electric field strength, since each is defined as a force per unit quantity acting in a stated direction.
  3. CGravitational potential and decay constant, since each of them describes how a property changes with position or with time.
  4. DElectric charge and decay constant, since each of them may be given either a positive or a negative sign within a calculation.

Question 106

[2 marks]measurement, errors and kinematics
An object is released from an aeroplane flying horizontally at a height of 4.5 km. Taking g as 9.81 m s^-2 and ignoring air resistance, calculate the time the object takes to reach the ground.

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Question 107

[2 marks]measurement, errors and kinematics
An aeroplane flying horizontally at 250 m s^-1 at a height of 4.5 km releases an object. Ignoring air resistance and taking g as 9.81 m s^-2, calculate the horizontal distance the object travels between release and striking the ground.

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Question 108

[2 marks]measurement, errors and kinematics
An object released from an aeroplane flying horizontally at 250 m s^-1 falls freely for 30.3 s before striking the ground. Taking g as 9.81 m s^-2, calculate the magnitude of its velocity as it strikes the ground.

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Question 109

[1 marks]measurement, errors and kinematics
An object is dropped from an aeroplane and its landing speed is calculated on the assumption of free fall. In practice the object strikes the ground more slowly than the calculated value. What is the reason for this?
  1. AAir resistance acts on the object throughout the fall and does negative work on it, so it gains less speed.
  2. BThe horizontal velocity of the object is lost during the fall, so only the vertical component is left at the ground.
  3. CThe acceleration of free fall falls off with height, so the object accelerates rather less than the calculation assumes.
  4. DThe object is given an upward push as it leaves the aeroplane, and this cancels part of its downward velocity.

Question 110

[2 marks]measurement, errors and kinematics
A block of ice of mass 120 kg floats in water in a pond. Taking g as 9.81 m s^-2, calculate the upthrust acting on the ice.

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Question 111

[3 marks]measurement, errors and kinematics
A block of ice floats freely in water in a beaker. The ice melts completely. What happens to the level of the water in the beaker, and why?
  1. AIt rises, because the water from the melted ice adds its whole volume to the water that was already in the beaker.
  2. BIt falls, because water is denser than ice, so the melted ice occupies a smaller volume than the solid block occupied.
  3. CIt rises, because the block no longer pushes any water aside once the whole of it has turned into liquid water.
  4. DIt stays the same, because the melted ice has exactly the volume of water that the floating block was displacing.

Question 112

[2 marks]measurement, errors and kinematics
A satellite of mass m moves in a circular orbit of radius r about the Earth, of mass M, the gravitational attraction providing the centripetal force. Write an expression for the kinetic energy of the satellite in terms of G, m, M and r.

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Question 113

[2 marks]measurement, errors and kinematics
The total energy of a satellite of mass m in a circular orbit of radius r about a planet of mass M is E = -GmM/(2r). What is the significance of the minus sign?
  1. AThe satellite is losing energy steadily to friction with the upper atmosphere, so its total energy falls further below zero as the orbit decays.
  2. BThe satellite travels round the planet in the opposite sense to the planet's own rotation, so its total energy is counted in the negative direction.
  3. CThe kinetic energy of the satellite is itself negative, because the satellite is moving against the direction of the gravitational force acting on it.
  4. DThe satellite is bound to the planet: energy has to be supplied to it to move it out of the field to infinity, where the energy is zero.

Question 201

[2 marks]waves, interference and X-ray imaging
Two identical loudspeakers are connected to the same signal generator and face an open space. A sound detector is moved steadily along a straight line in front of them. What does the detector receive?
  1. AA sound of constant loudness whose pitch rises and falls as the detector moves from one end of the line to the other.
  2. BA single loud point at the middle of the line, with silence at every other position along the line the detector follows.
  3. CA sound that grows steadily louder as the detector approaches the midpoint of the line and then fades away again.
  4. DA regular succession of loud and quiet points, loud where the path difference is a whole number of wavelengths.

Question 202

[2 marks]waves, interference and X-ray imaging
Two loudspeakers driven by the same signal generator emit sound of wavelength lambda. A detector is placed at a position where the sound received is a minimum. State the smallest path difference, in terms of lambda, between the detector and the two speakers.

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Question 203

[1 marks]waves, interference and X-ray imaging
Name the process by which a sound wave spreads out after passing through a narrow gap in a barrier.

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Question 204

[1 marks]waves, interference and X-ray imaging
An interference pattern in sound is normally produced with two loudspeakers driven from one signal generator. Only one loudspeaker is available. Which change to the set up would still produce the same pattern of loud and quiet points?
  1. AIncrease the power delivered to the single loudspeaker so that the sound that it emits becomes very much louder.
  2. BMove the single loudspeaker steadily back and forth while the detector is being moved along the line in front of it.
  3. CPlace a barrier with two narrow, closely spaced gaps in front of the single loudspeaker.
  4. DConnect the single loudspeaker to a second signal generator running at a slightly different frequency from the first.

Question 205

[1 marks]waves, interference and X-ray imaging
On a stationary wave, what name is given to a point whose displacement is always zero?

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Question 206

[2 marks]waves, interference and X-ray imaging
A stationary wave on a string of length L, fixed at both ends, shows three complete loops between the ends. Express the wavelength of the wave in terms of L.

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Question 207

[3 marks]waves, interference and X-ray imaging
A stationary wave is set up on a string that is fixed at both ends. How is it formed?
  1. AA wave travelling along the string and its reflection from a fixed end, of equal frequency and opposite direction, superpose.
  2. BA single wave travels along the string and slows down at the fixed ends, so its crests bunch together into a fixed pattern.
  3. CTwo waves of slightly different frequency travel along the string in the same direction and beat against one another.
  4. DThe string is driven at one end so hard that each part of it vibrates quite independently of the parts on either side.

Question 208

[2 marks]waves, interference and X-ray imaging
In what way does the transfer of energy by a stationary wave differ from that by a progressive wave?
  1. AA stationary wave transfers energy faster than a progressive wave, because two waves rather than one are contributing to it.
  2. BA stationary wave transfers no energy along its length, whereas a progressive wave carries energy in its direction of travel.
  3. CA stationary wave carries energy in both directions at once, whereas a progressive wave carries energy in one direction only.
  4. DA stationary wave transfers energy only at the nodes, whereas a progressive wave transfers energy only at each of its crests.

Question 209

[2 marks]waves, interference and X-ray imaging
The quality of an X-ray image is described by its sharpness and its contrast. What is meant by the contrast of the image?
  1. AThe width of the blurred border that appears around the outline of every structure recorded in the image.
  2. BThe smallest separation of two structures that can still be seen as two separate structures in the finished image.
  3. CThe difference in the degree of blackening between the parts of the image formed by adjacent structures.
  4. DThe total intensity of the X-ray beam that reaches the film after passing through the patient being examined.

Question 210

[2 marks]waves, interference and X-ray imaging
How can the sharpness of an X-ray image be increased?
  1. AMake the area of the anode struck by the electrons as small as possible, so the source is nearly a point.
  2. BPlace a lead grid between the patient and the film so that scattered X-rays are absorbed before reaching it.
  3. CRaise the accelerating voltage of the tube so that the X-rays that are produced become much more penetrating.
  4. DGive the patient a barium meal so that the soft tissue absorbs a larger fraction of the beam passing through it.

Question 211

[3 marks]waves, interference and X-ray imaging
A beam of X-rays of intensity 25 W m^-2 passes through a metal block whose linear absorption coefficient is 0.2 mm^-1, emerging with intensity 10 W m^-2. Calculate the thickness of the block in mm.

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Question 212

[3 marks]waves, interference and X-ray imaging
In a computed tomography scan the background intensity of a section is the total attenuation of all the voxels making up that section, and it must be subtracted from every back projected pixel before the individual voxel values can be recovered. A section is made up of four voxels whose values are 5, 6, 7 and 4. Determine the background intensity of this section.

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Question 301

[1 marks]alternating current, operational amplifiers and electromagnetism
What is meant by the peak value of an alternating voltage?
  1. AThe maximum value the voltage reaches in either direction during one cycle.
  2. BThe value of the alternating voltage averaged over one complete cycle of the supply.
  3. CThe steady direct voltage that would deliver the same mean power to a given resistor.
  4. DThe difference between the highest and the lowest voltage reached during one cycle.

Question 302

[2 marks]alternating current, operational amplifiers and electromagnetism
A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 230 V is connected across a 1 kilohm resistor. Calculate the root mean square value of the current in the resistor.

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Question 303

[2 marks]alternating current, operational amplifiers and electromagnetism
A sinusoidal alternating voltage has a peak value of 230 V. Calculate its root mean square value.

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Question 304

[2 marks]alternating current, operational amplifiers and electromagnetism
A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 230 V is connected across a 1 kilohm resistor. Calculate the mean power dissipated in the resistor.

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Question 305

[3 marks]alternating current, operational amplifiers and electromagnetism
A 10.0 V supply is connected across a 15 kilohm resistor in series with a 10 kilohm resistor. The junction between the two resistors is connected to the non inverting input of an operational amplifier whose output is joined directly back to its inverting input, and a voltmeter of resistance 1 kilohm is connected across the output. Calculate the reading of the voltmeter.

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Question 306

[3 marks]alternating current, operational amplifiers and electromagnetism
A 10.0 V supply is connected across a 15 kilohm resistor in series with a 10 kilohm resistor. A voltmeter of resistance 1 kilohm is connected directly across the 10 kilohm resistor. Calculate the reading of the voltmeter.

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Question 307

[2 marks]alternating current, operational amplifiers and electromagnetism
A voltmeter of resistance 1 kilohm reads 0.57 V when connected directly across the 10 kilohm resistor of a 15 kilohm and 10 kilohm divider fed from 10.0 V, but reads 4.0 V when that same point is fed to it through an operational amplifier wired as a voltage follower. Which statement accounts for the difference?
  1. AThe operational amplifier supplies extra current from its own power supply into the divider, so the p.d. across the 10 kilohm resistor rises.
  2. BThe meter reads correctly in both cases; it is the divider that behaves differently, because the supply is loaded more heavily in one arrangement.
  3. CThe meter's resistance is small compared with the divider, so used directly it draws current and lowers the p.d.; the follower takes none.
  4. DThe operational amplifier amplifies the p.d. across the 10 kilohm resistor by a factor of seven, so the buffered reading is the larger of the two.

Question 308

[2 marks]alternating current, operational amplifiers and electromagnetism
What is the tesla?
  1. AThe e.m.f. of 1 V induced in a coil of a single turn when the flux threading it changes by 1 Wb in each second.
  2. BThe magnetic flux passing through an area of 1 m squared placed at right angles to a field of unit strength.
  3. CThe flux density that gives a force of 1 N on each metre of a wire carrying 1 A at right angles to the field.
  4. DThe force of 1 N acting on a charge of 1 C moving at 1 m per second along the direction of the magnetic field.

Question 309

[1 marks]alternating current, operational amplifiers and electromagnetism
A straight wire of length L carrying a current I is placed at right angles to a uniform magnetic field and experiences a force F. Write an expression for the magnetic flux density B in terms of F, I and L.

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Question 310

[3 marks]alternating current, operational amplifiers and electromagnetism
A capacitor and a switch are connected in series with a low voltage alternating supply. Why does the capacitor not become charged up when the switch is closed?
  1. AThe capacitor blocks direct current completely, so no charge at all is able to reach either of its plates while the switch stays closed.
  2. BThe alternating supply has a mean voltage of zero over a cycle, so it is never able to drive any charge at all on to the plates.
  3. CThe supply reverses each half cycle, so the capacitor charges one way then discharges and charges the other way, holding no steady charge.
  4. DThe capacitor charges to the peak voltage almost at once and then leaks all of that charge away again through the internal resistance.

Question 311

[2 marks]alternating current, operational amplifiers and electromagnetism
A capacitor connected to a low voltage alternating supply does not charge up. Name the single component that should be added in series with it so that the capacitor is charged in one direction only from the same supply.

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Question 401

[2 marks]thermodynamics, gases and fluids
What does the zeroth law of thermodynamics state?
  1. AThe internal energy of a system is increased both by the heat supplied to it and by the work done on it.
  2. BIf two bodies are each in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are in thermal equilibrium with each other.
  3. CEnergy cannot be created or destroyed by any process, but only changed from one form into another form.
  4. DHeat flows of its own accord from a body at a higher temperature to a body at a lower temperature.

Question 402

[2 marks]thermodynamics, gases and fluids
How does the thermodynamic scale of temperature differ from an empirical scale?
  1. AIt does not depend on the properties of any particular substance, being fixed by absolute zero and the triple point of water.
  2. BIt is measured in kelvin rather than in degrees celsius, the two scales being in every other respect identical to one another.
  3. CIt can be used only for temperatures above the triple point of water, whereas an empirical scale carries no such restriction.
  4. DIt assumes that a chosen thermometric property changes linearly between the two fixed points that are chosen for the scale.

Question 403

[2 marks]thermodynamics, gases and fluids
How can the internal energy of a system be reduced?
  1. ABy compressing the system quickly while keeping it perfectly insulated from its surroundings throughout the process.
  2. BBy allowing heat to flow out of it to cooler surroundings, or by letting it do work as it expands.
  3. CBy raising the temperature of the surroundings so that they hold the system at one fixed temperature throughout.
  4. DBy adding more of the same substance to the system while holding both its pressure and its volume constant.

Question 404

[3 marks]thermodynamics, gases and fluids
A cup contains 200 g of water at 358 K. The water cools to 347 K. Taking the specific heat capacity of water as 4 200 J kg^-1 K^-1, calculate the magnitude of the change in internal energy of the water, in J.

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Question 405

[2 marks]thermodynamics, gases and fluids
200 g of water at 358 K loses 9 240 J of energy to milk added to it at 277.5 K, the final temperature of the mixture being 347 K. Taking the specific heat capacity of milk as 3 900 J kg^-1 K^-1, calculate the mass of milk added.

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Question 406

[3 marks]thermodynamics, gases and fluids
A car of internal volume 2.5 m^3 is heated by the sun from 298 K to 328 K while the pressure inside stays at 101 kPa. Taking R as 8.31 J mol^-1 K^-1 and the Avogadro constant as 6.02 x 10^23 mol^-1, calculate the number of air molecules that must escape from the car.

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Question 407

[1 marks]thermodynamics, gases and fluids
The number of air molecules leaving a car as it warms at constant pressure is found using pV = nRT. Which assumption does that calculation require?
  1. AThe temperature of the air is the same as the temperature of the metal body of the car.
  2. BThe air inside the car is completely dry, so that it contains no water vapour of any kind at all.
  3. CThe molecules of the air lose no energy at all when they collide with the inside walls of the car.
  4. DThe air behaves as an ideal gas over the range of pressure and temperature involved.

Question 408

[3 marks]thermodynamics, gases and fluids
An athlete repeatedly stretches and releases a strong rubber band, and the band becomes noticeably warm. The stress-strain curve for the stretching does not retrace itself on release: the unloading curve lies below the loading curve. Why does the rubber heat up?
  1. AThe area of the loop between the two curves is energy per unit volume put in but not recovered, and it stays in the rubber.
  2. BThe molecules of the rubber are forced closer together as it is stretched, and the work done in compressing them raises its temperature.
  3. CAir resistance acts on the band each time it is moved quickly, and the work done against that resistance is converted into internal energy.
  4. DThe rubber is a poor conductor of heat, so the energy produced in the athlete's hands cannot escape and builds up within the band.

Question 409

[2 marks]thermodynamics, gases and fluids
What is meant by an ideal fluid?
  1. AOne whose density and whose viscosity both increase steadily and smoothly with the depth below the surface.
  2. BOne that obeys the gas laws exactly at every pressure and at every temperature to which it is subjected.
  3. COne in which the molecules exert no forces at all on one another except during collisions between them.
  4. DOne that is incompressible and has no viscosity, and whose flow is steady and streamline throughout.

Question 410

[1 marks]thermodynamics, gases and fluids
For the steady flow of an incompressible fluid through a tube, the areas of two cross sections are A1 and A2 and the speeds of the fluid there are v1 and v2. Write the equation of continuity relating these four quantities.

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Question 411

[3 marks]thermodynamics, gases and fluids
Water flows at 0.3 m/s along a pipe of diameter 4 cm and leaves through a kitchen tap of radius 0.5 cm. Calculate the speed of the water as it leaves the tap.

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Question 501

[2 marks]fields, quantum physics, radioactivity and communication
In a velocity selector a beam of charged particles passes through an electric field of strength E and a magnetic flux density B, the two fields being at right angles to each other and to the beam. Write an expression for the speed of the particles that pass through undeflected, in terms of E and B.

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Question 502

[1 marks]fields, quantum physics, radioactivity and communication
In a velocity selector the electric and magnetic forces on a charged particle act in opposite directions. What happens to a particle whose speed is greater than the selected value?
  1. AIt passes through undeflected as well, since the selected speed does not depend on the charge of the particle.
  2. BIt slows down until the two forces acting on it balance, and then passes through the selector undeflected.
  3. CThe magnetic force on it exceeds the electric force, so it is deflected aside and stopped by the slit.
  4. DThe electric force on it exceeds the magnetic force, so it is pulled forward and leaves the beam faster.

Question 503

[2 marks]fields, quantum physics, radioactivity and communication
State Einstein's photoelectric equation, relating the energy hf of an incident photon to the work function of the metal and the maximum kinetic energy of an emitted electron.

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Question 504

[2 marks]fields, quantum physics, radioactivity and communication
Calculate the energy of a photon of radiation of wavelength 950 nm, taking the Planck constant as 6.63 x 10^-34 J s and the speed of light as 3.00 x 10^8 m/s. Give the answer in J.

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Question 505

[2 marks]fields, quantum physics, radioactivity and communication
How does an absorption line spectrum differ, in appearance and in origin, from an emission line spectrum of the same element?
  1. ABright lines on a bright background, formed when white light is passed through a gas hotter than the source producing it.
  2. BDark lines on a continuous bright background, formed when a cool gas absorbs photons of its own characteristic energies.
  3. CBright lines on a dark background, formed when the excited atoms of a gas fall back to their lower energy levels.
  4. DDark lines on a dark background, formed when the atoms of a cool gas emit photons of their own characteristic energies.

Question 506

[1 marks]fields, quantum physics, radioactivity and communication
An alpha particle is fired directly at a gold nucleus and is brought momentarily to rest at its distance of closest approach. State the energy conversion that has taken place.

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Question 507

[3 marks]fields, quantum physics, radioactivity and communication
An alpha particle of mass 4 u (1 u = 1.66 x 10^-27 kg) and charge 2e is fired at a gold nucleus of proton number 79 with an initial speed of 9.5 x 10^5 m/s. Taking 1/(4 pi epsilon nought) as 8.99 x 10^9 N m^2 C^-2 and e as 1.6 x 10^-19 C, calculate the distance of closest approach.

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Question 508

[2 marks]fields, quantum physics, radioactivity and communication
What is meant by the activity of a radioactive source?
  1. AThe fraction of the nuclei present in the source that have already decayed since it was first made.
  2. BThe probability that any one nucleus in the source will decay during the next one second of time.
  3. CThe energy carried away each second by the particles and the radiation that the source is emitting.
  4. DThe number of nuclei in the source that disintegrate in each unit of time.

Question 509

[2 marks]fields, quantum physics, radioactivity and communication
A radioactive isotope has a decay constant of 200 day^-1. Calculate its half life, giving the answer in minutes.

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Question 510

[2 marks]fields, quantum physics, radioactivity and communication
A radioactive source has a count rate of 500 counts per minute and a decay constant of 200 day^-1. Calculate the count rate one hour later, in counts per minute.

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Question 511

[2 marks]fields, quantum physics, radioactivity and communication
State one advantage of amplitude modulation over frequency modulation for a radio broadcast.
  1. AAn AM signal occupies a much narrower bandwidth, so many more stations fit into a given part of the spectrum.
  2. BAn AM signal is far less affected by electrical noise, since noise mostly alters the amplitude of a radio wave.
  3. CAn AM broadcast carries a wider range of audio frequencies, so the quality of the sound that is reproduced is higher.
  4. DAn AM signal can be received by any aerial without a tuned circuit, since it has no side bands of its own.

Question 512

[2 marks]fields, quantum physics, radioactivity and communication
A carrier wave of frequency 900 kHz is amplitude modulated by frequencies ranging from 5 kHz to 20 kHz. State the frequency range of the upper side band.

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Question 513

[2 marks]fields, quantum physics, radioactivity and communication
What is the effect of increasing the sampling rate used in the analogue to digital conversion of a signal?
  1. AThe signal is reproduced over a greater distance, since each sample is transmitted with more power behind it.
  2. BThe reconstructed signal follows the original waveform more closely, but more bits are produced each second.
  3. CFewer bits are produced each second, so the signal can be transmitted over a channel of much smaller bandwidth.
  4. DThe amplitude of each sample is measured more precisely, so the number of quantisation levels available is greater.

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