A body moves in a circle at constant speed. Which statement correctly explains why it is still accelerating?
AAny object moving along a curved path must be losing speed continuously, which is what defines acceleration.
BAcceleration only occurs when speed changes, so a body moving at constant speed can never be accelerating.
CThe body accelerates only at the instant it starts moving, and travels at constant velocity for the rest of the circular path once it reaches full speed.
DAcceleration is the rate of change of velocity; a constant change of direction changes the velocity even though the speed stays the same.
Question 102
[2 marks]circular motion and projectile motion
A pendulum bob of mass 72.0 g is rotated at a constant speed of 4.5 m/s in a vertical circle of radius 50.0 cm. Calculate the centripetal force on the bob.
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Question 103
[2 marks]circular motion and projectile motion
For the bob of mass 72.0 g moving at 4.5 m/s in a vertical circle of radius 50.0 cm, the centripetal force is 2.92 N. Calculate the tension in the string when the bob is at the lowest point of the circle (directly below the centre).
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Question 104
[2 marks]circular motion and projectile motion
For the same bob (mass 72.0 g, speed 4.5 m/s, radius 50.0 cm), calculate the tension in the string when the bob is at the highest point of the circle (directly above the centre).
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Question 105
[2 marks]circular motion and projectile motion
A bob whirls in a vertical circle on a string. At which point in the circle is the string most likely to break, and why?
AAt the bottom of the circle, because the string tension is greatest there, needing to supply both the centripetal force and support the weight.
BAt the side of the circle, because the string is horizontal there and must carry the full weight of the bob without any vertical help from its own tension.
CThe tension is the same everywhere in the circle, so the string is equally likely to break at any point.
DAt the top of the circle, because the string tension is smallest there.
Question 106
[1 marks]circular motion and projectile motion
A whirling bob's string breaks at the lowest point of its vertical circular path, where its velocity is horizontal. State one assumption normally made when calculating its subsequent path to the ground.
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Question 201
[1 marks]gravitation and satellite motion
State Newton's law of gravitation, in words.
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Question 202
[1 marks]gravitation and satellite motion
A satellite of mass M orbits the Earth with period T at radius r. Which pair of equations is combined to show that T^2 is proportional to r^3?
AF = GM_eM/r^2 (gravitational force) and F = Mrω^2 (centripetal force), with ω = 2π/T.
BPV = nRT, applied to the gas inside the satellite's cabin.
CF = ma and v = u + at, applied to the satellite's straight-line motion along a fixed radial direction toward the planet's centre.
DE = mc^2 and p = mv, applied to the satellite's total energy.
Question 203
[1 marks]gravitation and satellite motion
What is meant by a geostationary satellite?
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Question 204
[2 marks]gravitation and satellite motion
Calculate the angular velocity of a geostationary satellite (period 24 hours).
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Question 205
[2 marks]gravitation and satellite motion
A geostationary satellite of mass 70 kg has angular velocity 7.27x10^-5 rad/s. Given the mass of the Earth is 6.0x10^24 kg, deduce the radius of its orbit.
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Question 206
[1 marks]gravitation and satellite motion
Why is a geostationary satellite well suited to communication?
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Question 207
[1 marks]gravitation and satellite motion
In the context of gravitation, what is meant by gravitational potential at a point?
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Question 208
[2 marks]gravitation and satellite motion
A satellite of mass 70 kg moves from an orbit of radius 4.23x10^7 m to a smaller orbit of radius 1.41x10^7 m (r/3), around a planet of mass 6.0x10^24 kg. Calculate the change in gravitational potential energy.
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Question 209
[1 marks]gravitation and satellite motion
State one way in which an orbiting satellite loses energy over time.
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Question 301
[1 marks]electromagnetic induction
State the SI unit of magnetic flux linkage.
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Question 302
[1 marks]electromagnetic induction
Write the formula for magnetic flux linkage in terms of flux density B, area A, number of turns N and angle theta between the field and the normal to the coil.
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Question 303
[1 marks]electromagnetic induction
State Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction.
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Question 304
[1 marks]electromagnetic induction
State Lenz's law of electromagnetic induction.
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Question 305
[2 marks]electromagnetic induction
Why is Lenz's law an example of the law of conservation of energy?
ABecause the induced current always flows in the same direction as the change that produces it, releasing stored energy for free without any work being done.
BBecause Lenz's law only applies when no current is actually induced, so no energy is ever transferred.
CBecause the induced e.m.f. is always exactly zero once the system reaches a steady, unchanging state.
DBecause work must be done against the opposing force set up by the induced current, and it is this work that supplies the electrical energy generated.
Question 306
[1 marks]electromagnetic induction
The north pole of a magnet is pulled out of a solenoid connected to a galvanometer. Points A, B, C and D lie on the wire, with the induced current flowing from B to A through the external circuit. Which points does the current flow between in the external circuit?
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Question 307
[2 marks]electromagnetic induction
A wire AB is moved across a uniform magnetic field. Why is a current induced in the circuit?
AThe wire's own resistance decreases as it moves faster, allowing more current to flow at higher speed.
BMoving the wire changes its temperature, and the resulting thermoelectric effect is what drives the current.
CThe area swept by the wire changes with time, changing the magnetic flux through the circuit and so inducing an e.m.f. that drives a current in the closed circuit.
DThe magnetic field itself is switched on and off rapidly as the wire moves, which is what induces the current in this kind of moving-wire circuit, rather than any change in swept area.
Question 308
[2 marks]electromagnetic induction
A wire of length 6.0 cm moves at 8.0 m/s across a uniform magnetic field of flux density 1.2 mT. Calculate the induced e.m.f.
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Question 309
[2 marks]electromagnetic induction
The wire AB in the previous question has resistance 0.25 ohm per metre and length 6.0 cm, giving an induced e.m.f. of 5.76x10^-4 V. Calculate the induced current.
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Question 310
[1 marks]electromagnetic induction
State one way of increasing the induced current in a wire moving through a magnetic field.
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Question 401
[1 marks]thermometry and kinetic theory
A physical property varying with temperature is used to build a thermometer. What is essential for that property to be usable for measuring temperature?
AIt must vary with pressure but stay completely constant with temperature.
BIt must be capable of being calibrated at known fixed points, so readings can be extrapolated to other temperatures.
CIt must only change value at exactly 0 degC and remain fixed at every other temperature, never varying continuously across the working range.
DIt must be visible to the naked eye without any form of scale or calibration.
Question 402
[1 marks]thermometry and kinetic theory
Which best describes the construction of a thermocouple thermometer?
AA sealed glass bulb of coloured liquid that expands up a capillary tube as its temperature rises.
BTwo dissimilar metal wires joined at a hot and a cold junction, producing a thermoelectric e.m.f. that depends on the temperature difference between the junctions.
CA bimetallic strip that bends by an amount proportional to the temperature change.
DA single metal wire whose resistance is measured directly with an ohmmeter as it changes with temperature, requiring no reference junction or second dissimilar wire at all.
Question 403
[1 marks]thermometry and kinetic theory
Compared with a thermocouple thermometer, what is a key advantage of a resistance thermometer?
AIt responds instantly to rapidly changing temperatures, unlike the thermocouple.
BIt never requires calibration at any fixed points before use.
CIt can only be used at temperatures below 0 degC, unlike a thermocouple.
DIt measures constant or slowly-changing temperatures more accurately.
Question 404
[2 marks]thermometry and kinetic theory
A resistance thermometer reads 2120 ohm at 0 degC, 7320 ohm at 100 degC, and 1070 ohm when placed in a cooled bath. What is the bath's temperature on the resistance scale?
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Question 405
[1 marks]thermometry and kinetic theory
A resistance thermometer and a thermocouple placed in the same cooled bath give different readings. Why can this happen even though both were calibrated at the same fixed points?
ATheir thermometric properties do not vary with temperature in exactly the same way, except at the fixed calibration points themselves.
BOne of the two thermometers must be broken, since correctly calibrated thermometers always agree exactly at every temperature between the fixed points.
CThe bath temperature itself changes depending on which thermometer is inserted into it.
DResistance thermometers cannot be calibrated at fixed points at all, unlike thermocouples.
Question 406
[1 marks]thermometry and kinetic theory
What is meant by the thermodynamic scale of temperature?
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Question 407
[2 marks]thermometry and kinetic theory
For an ideal gas, p = (1/3)rho<c^2>, where rho is the density and <c^2> is the mean square speed of the molecules. Using pV = nRT, write an expression for the mean kinetic energy of a single molecule in terms of R, T and the number of molecules N.
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Question 408
[2 marks]thermometry and kinetic theory
Under what condition can the total energy of the atoms of a substance increase without any rise in the substance's temperature?
AThis can never happen; any increase in a substance's total energy must always raise its temperature.
BWhenever the substance is heated slowly enough, regardless of whether it changes phase.
CDuring a change of phase, when the extra (latent heat) energy goes into breaking or forming bonds between atoms rather than raising their kinetic energy.
DOnly when the substance is compressed to a much smaller volume without any heat being supplied at all, which is treated here as the sole possible exception to the rule.
Question 501
[1 marks]electric fields and Millikan's experiment
Define electric field strength and state its SI unit.
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Question 502
[1 marks]electric fields and Millikan's experiment
Write the equation for the force F on a charge q travelling with velocity V perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of flux density B.
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Question 503
[2 marks]electric fields and Millikan's experiment
In Millikan's oil-drop experiment, oil drops are sprayed into a uniform electric field between charged plates. How is a drop's charge determined?
AThe drop's terminal (falling) velocity is measured, then the field is adjusted to hold the drop stationary; the charge is deduced from the field needed to balance its weight.
BThe drop's charge is read directly from a meter connected to the microscope used to view it.
CThe drop's colour under illumination is compared against a reference chart to read off its charge directly.
DThe drop is weighed on a sensitive balance both before and after being sprayed through the apparatus, and the charge is deduced from the small change in mass measured this way.
Question 504
[2 marks]electric fields and Millikan's experiment
What evidence from experiments such as Millikan's oil-drop experiment supports the quantisation of electric charge?
AEvery measured charge on a drop is found to be an integer multiple of a single basic charge, about 1.6x10^-19 C.
BThe measured charge on different drops varies completely continuously, taking any value whatsoever with no smallest unit.
CAll oil drops in the experiment are found to carry exactly the same charge, regardless of how many electrons they have gained or lost.
DThe charge measured depends only on the size of the drop, not on any underlying fundamental unit of charge.
Question 505
[1 marks]electric fields and Millikan's experiment
An electron of speed 3.2x10^7 m/s enters a field at right angles between two parallel plates of length 2.0 cm. Calculate the time taken to pass between the plates.
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Question 506
[1 marks]electric fields and Millikan's experiment
Two horizontal parallel plates, separated by 0.5 cm, have a potential difference of 80 V across them. Calculate the electric field strength between the plates.
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Question 507
[1 marks]electric fields and Millikan's experiment
Calculate the force on an electron in an electric field of strength 1.6x10^4 V/m.
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Question 508
[1 marks]electric fields and Millikan's experiment
An electron of mass 9.1x10^-31 kg experiences a force of 2.56x10^-15 N in an electric field. Calculate its acceleration along the direction of the field.
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Question 509
[2 marks]electric fields and Millikan's experiment
An electron accelerates at 2.81x10^15 m/s^2 along the field direction for 6.25x10^-10 s while crossing the plates, starting from rest in that direction. Calculate its speed perpendicular to its initial direction of motion as it leaves the plates.
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Question 510
[1 marks]electric fields and Millikan's experiment
What shape does the path of an electron take as it crosses a uniform electric field between two charged parallel plates, entering perpendicular to the field?
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Question 601
[1 marks]refraction, waves and diffraction grating
State the law relating the angle of incidence i and angle of refraction r for light passing between two given media.
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Question 602
[1 marks]refraction, waves and diffraction grating
What is meant by the critical angle, for light travelling from a denser medium towards a less dense one?
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Question 603
[1 marks]refraction, waves and diffraction grating
What condition on the angle of incidence i and the critical angle C must be satisfied for total internal reflection to occur?
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Question 604
[1 marks]refraction, waves and diffraction grating
A ray of light in air strikes a glass block at an incident angle of 60 degrees. The refractive index of the glass with respect to air is 1.5. Calculate the angle of refraction inside the glass.
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Question 605
[2 marks]refraction, waves and diffraction grating
A ray refracts to 35.3 degrees inside a glass block (refractive index 1.5, critical angle 42 degrees) and then meets a second face at an angle of 54.7 degrees to the normal of that face. What happens to the ray at this second face?
AIt travels straight through undeviated, since glass is transparent to visible light.
BIt undergoes total internal reflection, since 54.7 degrees exceeds the glass's critical angle of 42 degrees.
CIt refracts out into the air at exactly 54.7 degrees, since this is less than 90 degrees and so is assumed to always permit refraction regardless of the critical angle.
DIt is completely absorbed by the glass at this face, since the angle exceeds 45 degrees.
Question 606
[2 marks]refraction, waves and diffraction grating
Which statement correctly compares the phase relationship between particles in a progressive wave and in a stationary wave?
AIn a progressive wave, particles between two adjacent nodes are always in phase; in a stationary wave, neighbouring particles are instead always out of phase with each other.
BPhase differences between particles only exist in stationary waves, never in progressive waves.
CIn both wave types, every particle in the medium vibrates exactly in phase with every other particle at all times.
DIn a progressive wave, neighbouring particles are generally out of phase with each other; in a stationary wave, particles between the same two nodes vibrate in phase.
Question 607
[2 marks]refraction, waves and diffraction grating
Which statement correctly compares the amplitudes of particles in a progressive wave and in a stationary wave?
AIn a stationary wave every particle has the same, constant amplitude, identical regardless of its position between two nodes.
BAmplitude is undefined for a stationary wave, since its particles do not actually move at all.
CIn a progressive wave every particle has the same amplitude; in a stationary wave the amplitude varies from zero at the nodes to a maximum at the antinodes.
DIn a progressive wave the amplitude varies between different particles along the wave; in a stationary wave every particle instead shares one fixed, non-zero amplitude throughout.
Question 608
[2 marks]refraction, waves and diffraction grating
A diffraction grating with 300 lines per mm is placed 200.0 cm from a screen, illuminated by monochromatic red light. The first-order red image is displaced 43 cm from the centre on the screen. Deduce the wavelength of the red light. (Use grating spacing d = 1/300000 m and the angle from tan(theta) = 43/200.)
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Question 609
[1 marks]refraction, waves and diffraction grating
What is the main problem that would arise if a diffraction grating experiment were repeated using infra-red radiation instead of visible light?
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Question 610
[1 marks]refraction, waves and diffraction grating
How could the problem of infra-red radiation being invisible to the eye be overcome in a diffraction experiment?
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Section B
Section B, Question 7
[1 marks]astrophysics and cosmology (Option A)
List the following in order of increasing mass, starting with the smallest: star, planet, galaxy, moon, universe.
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[2 marks]astrophysics and cosmology (Option A)
Which statement correctly describes the relationships between the moon, a planet, a star, a galaxy and the universe?
AA planet is a satellite of a moon; a star orbits a planet; galaxies make up a star; the universe is made of galaxies.
BMoons, planets and stars are all identical objects that simply differ in the name astronomers happen to give them.
CA galaxy is a satellite of a star, and the universe is a single very large galaxy containing every star.
DA moon is a satellite of a planet; a planet orbits a star; stars make up a galaxy; galaxies make up the universe.
[2 marks]astrophysics and cosmology (Option A)
According to Hubble's law, V = H0 r, with H0 = 17x10^-19 per second. Assuming a Big Bang scenario, estimate the age of the Universe (1/H0).
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[2 marks]astrophysics and cosmology (Option A)
Using H0 = 17x10^-19 per second, estimate the critical density of the Universe using rho0 = 3H0^2/(8 pi G).
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[1 marks]astrophysics and cosmology (Option A)
The age of the Universe estimated from 1/H0 is only an approximation. Why?
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[2 marks]astrophysics and cosmology (Option A)
What is the significance of the cosmic microwave background radiation?
AIt shows the universe has always existed in a fixed, unchanging steady state with no beginning.
BIt is emitted only by nearby stars in our own galaxy and has no connection to the universe's origin.
CIt proves the universe is contracting rather than expanding, since its cosmic background temperature is observed by astronomers to be steadily rising over time.
DIt supports the Big Bang theory: as the universe expanded and cooled, this background radiation cooled with it, indicating a finite age for the universe.
Section B, Question 9
[1 marks]operational amplifiers (Option E, Electronics)
For an ideal operational amplifier, what is meant by infinite open-loop gain?
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[1 marks]operational amplifiers (Option E, Electronics)
For an ideal operational amplifier, what is meant by infinite slew rate?
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[1 marks]operational amplifiers (Option E, Electronics)
For an ideal operational amplifier, what is meant by frequency bandwidth?
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[1 marks]operational amplifiers (Option E, Electronics)
An op-amp with open-loop gain 10^5 is powered from +15 V and -15 V supplies. A differential input voltage of 5 V is applied to the non-inverting input. What is the output voltage?
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[2 marks]operational amplifiers (Option E, Electronics)
A direct voltage V1 = 3.0 V is applied to the inverting input, and a sinusoidal noise signal V2 (peak 4.5 V) is applied to the non-inverting input, of a high-gain op-amp powered from +15 V/-15 V. What does the output signal look like?
AA steady direct voltage of 3.0 V, since the sinusoidal signal V2 is fully filtered out by the op-amp before it can reach the output stage.
BA clean sine wave with the same peak voltage as V2, but shifted up by exactly 3.0 V.
CA square wave alternating between +15 V and -15 V, switching each time V2 crosses the 3.0 V reference level.
DA steady direct voltage of 4.5 V, since V2's peak simply overrides V1.
[1 marks]operational amplifiers (Option E, Electronics)
An op-amp is used as in the previous question, comparing a sinusoidal noise signal against a fixed direct-voltage reference to produce a switching square-wave output. What is this circuit's application called?
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[1 marks]operational amplifiers (Option E, Electronics)
A water-temperature monitor's op-amp has feedback resistor Rf = 10 kilohm and gain A = 2.5 at the high-tone output voltage. Using R_Th = Rf/A, calculate the thermistor resistance at this point.
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[1 marks]operational amplifiers (Option E, Electronics)
In a water-temperature monitor using an op-amp and a thermistor, a high tone is produced at temperature T1 and a low tone at a colder temperature T2. What is the relationship between water temperature and siren tone?
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Section B, Question 10
[1 marks]physics of fluids (Option F)
Write the formula for the pressure p at depth h in a fluid of density rho.
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[1 marks]physics of fluids (Option F)
A cylindrical object of mass 6.0 kg floats in water. Calculate the upthrust on the cylinder.
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[2 marks]physics of fluids (Option F)
A cylinder of diameter 30 cm, length 120 cm and mass 6.0 kg floats upright in water of density 1000 kg/m^3, experiencing an upthrust of 58.9 N. Calculate the fraction of the cylinder's volume that is below the water surface.
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[2 marks]physics of fluids (Option F)
A floating cylinder (total volume 0.0848 m^3) has a 0.8 kg body placed on top, so its total mass becomes 6.8 kg, in water of density 1000 kg/m^3. Calculate the new fraction of the cylinder submerged.
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[1 marks]physics of fluids (Option F)
What is meant by the drag force on an object moving through a fluid?
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[2 marks]physics of fluids (Option F)
Which factors affect the size of the drag force on an object moving through a stationary fluid?
AThe object's speed, its shape and cross-sectional area, and the fluid's viscosity and density.
BOnly the fluid's temperature, which is assumed to fully determine the drag on any object regardless of its speed, shape or the fluid's density.
COnly the object's colour and the ambient temperature of the surrounding air.
DOnly the object's mass, regardless of its shape, speed or the fluid's properties.
Section B, Question 11
[1 marks]medical physics, the eye (Option M)
Which part of the eye refracts light rays the most?
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[1 marks]medical physics, the eye (Option M)
Which part of the eye is responsible for the fine adjustment (focusing) of a beam of light onto the retina?
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[2 marks]medical physics, the eye (Option M)
How does the eye accommodate to view objects at different distances?
AThe pupil widens for near objects and narrows for distant ones, which alone is assumed here to be what changes the eye's focus without any change in the lens itself.
BThe cornea's curvature reverses direction depending on whether the object is near or far.
CThe ciliary muscles contract to thicken the lens for near objects, and relax to thin the lens for distant objects, changing its focal length.
DThe eyeball itself physically changes length, moving the retina closer to or further from the lens.
[2 marks]medical physics, the eye (Option M)
Which pair of factors can result in short-sightedness (myopia)?
AAn eyeball that is too long (too great a distance between lens and retina), or ciliary muscles that do not relax well enough to thin the lens fully.
BAn eyeball that is too short for its lens, or ciliary muscles that are permanently paralysed and cannot contract at all under any circumstance whatsoever.
CA cornea that is completely flat, or a retina that is more sensitive to light than normal.
DA lens with too little curvature at all times, regardless of the ciliary muscles' state.
[1 marks]medical physics, the eye (Option M)
What type of lens is used to correct short-sightedness?
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[2 marks]medical physics, the eye (Option M)
A short-sighted person cannot focus on an object further than 250 cm away. Using 1/u + 1/v = 1/f with u = infinity and v = -250 cm, deduce the focal length of the corrective lens needed.
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Section B, Question 12
[1 marks]environmental physics, nuclear reactors and wind turbines (Option P)
What is the role of the moderator in a nuclear reactor?
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[1 marks]environmental physics, nuclear reactors and wind turbines (Option P)
What is the role of the control rods in a nuclear reactor?
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[1 marks]environmental physics, nuclear reactors and wind turbines (Option P)
What is the role of the coolant in a nuclear reactor?
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[2 marks]environmental physics, nuclear reactors and wind turbines (Option P)
A nuclear reactor's chain reaction became uncontrollable following a power failure. What kind of system should have been in place to prevent this?
AA system that automatically removes the moderator from the reactor whenever a power failure occurs.
BA mechanical fail-safe system that automatically pushes the control rods into the reactor core to shut it down if power is lost.
CA system that automatically increases the coolant temperature to slow the chain reaction during a power failure, without needing the control rods.
DThere is no way to prevent this: any power failure inevitably makes a chain reaction uncontrollable.
[2 marks]environmental physics, nuclear reactors and wind turbines (Option P)
Why is it impossible for a wind turbine to actually achieve the theoretical maximum power P = (1/2)pi(rho)l^2V^3 predicted for its blades?
AThe formula itself is dimensionally inconsistent, so it never gives a physically meaningful value in the first place for any real turbine.
BReal air has zero density, so the density term in the formula does not actually apply to a genuine wind turbine.
CThe air passing through the blades cannot be reduced to zero velocity afterwards, so some kinetic energy always remains in the outflow.
DWind turbine blades are always stationary in practice, so no power at all can ever be extracted from the wind.
Section B, Question 13
[2 marks]telecommunications, modulation and sampling (Option T)
How can sky waves transmitted by an earth-based transmitter reach places beyond the line of sight?
AThey pass straight through the Earth itself to reach the far side directly.
BThey are repeatedly reflected between the Earth's surface and the ionosphere, allowing them to travel beyond the horizon.
CThey travel in a perfectly straight line and simply have a very long range that always exceeds the horizon regardless of transmitter power.
DThey are reflected only once, directly off the Moon, before reaching the receiver.
[2 marks]telecommunications, modulation and sampling (Option T)
Which statement correctly distinguishes amplitude modulation (AM) from frequency modulation (FM)?
AAM uses no carrier wave at all, while FM combines two separate carrier waves at different frequencies.
BIn AM the carrier's amplitude varies with the audio signal while its frequency stays constant; in FM the carrier's frequency varies with the audio signal while its amplitude stays constant.
CIn AM the carrier's frequency varies with the audio signal; in FM the carrier's amplitude varies with the audio signal, with the opposite quantity held fixed in each case rather than the frequency.
DAM and FM both vary the carrier's amplitude and frequency together, in exact proportion to each other.
[1 marks]telecommunications, modulation and sampling (Option T)
What is the main advantage of FM over AM?
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[1 marks]telecommunications, modulation and sampling (Option T)
In analogue-to-digital conversion, what is meant by the sampling time?
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[1 marks]telecommunications, modulation and sampling (Option T)
An analogue signal is sampled every 125 microseconds. At the first sample time (t = 125 microseconds), the reading is 3 V. What voltage is read at this first sample?
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[1 marks]telecommunications, modulation and sampling (Option T)
In binary code, one of the sampled voltage readings is 6 V. Convert 6 to its binary code.
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[1 marks]telecommunications, modulation and sampling (Option T)
State one way of improving a regenerated (reconstructed) digital signal so that it more closely matches the original analogue signal.