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ZIMSEC A Level · J2019

Chemistry Paper 3 June 2019

Questions
86
Total marks
150

Sit this paper online

Questions
86
Pass mark
52
Sit this paper

Answer every question in the printed order, get marked at the end, then see the answers.

The questions

Question 101

[1 marks]ionisation energy / solubility product
Elements A, B and C have first ionisation energies of 494, 418 and 403 kJ mol−1^{-1} but second ionisation energies of 4560, 3070 and 2633 kJ mol−1^{-1}. To which Group do they belong?
  1. AGroup II, because the 2nd ionisation energy is large
  2. BGroup VII, because the 1st ionisation energies are low
  3. CGroup I, because a large jump occurs between the 1st and 2nd ionisation energies
  4. DGroup III, because there are three elements listed

Question 102

[1 marks]ionisation energy / solubility product
Explain why the first ionisation energy of boron is lower than that of beryllium.
  1. ABoron's outer electron is in a higher-energy, better-shielded 2p orbital, whereas beryllium's is in the 2s orbital
  2. BBoron has a completely filled outer sub-shell
  3. CBeryllium has more protons than boron
  4. DBoron has a smaller nuclear charge than beryllium

Question 103

[1 marks]ionisation energy / solubility product
The solubility product of iron(II) hydroxide is xx mol3^3 dm−9^{-9}. Calculate its solubility in terms of xx.
  1. A(x4)1/3\left(\dfrac{x}{4}\right)^{1/3}
  2. Bx\sqrt{x}
  3. C(x2)1/3\left(\dfrac{x}{2}\right)^{1/3}
  4. Dx1/3x^{1/3}

Question 104

[1 marks]ionisation energy / solubility product
How does the first ionisation energy of elements change down a group of the Periodic Table?

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 105

[2 marks]ionisation energy / solubility product
Why does the first ionisation energy of elements decrease down a group?
  1. AThe outer electron is removed from a shell that is progressively closer to the nucleus every time, so it experiences a stronger attraction and is held more tightly
  2. BThe nuclear charge decreases down the group, weakening the pull on the outer electron
  3. CEach successive element has fewer occupied electron shells, exposing the outer electron more directly to the nucleus
  4. DAtomic radius and electron shielding both increase down the group, so the outer electron is less strongly attracted to the nucleus

Question 106

[1 marks]ionisation energy / solubility product
Write an equation for the second ionisation energy of boron.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 107

[2 marks]ionisation energy / solubility product
Which statement correctly describes the shapes of the s and p atomic orbitals?
  1. AAn s orbital is a flattened disc shape around the nucleus, and a p orbital is shaped like a figure-of-eight extending symmetrically outward
  2. BAn s orbital is dumb-bell shaped with two lobes, and a p orbital is spherical
  3. CAn s orbital is spherical, and a p orbital is dumb-bell shaped with two lobes directed along an axis
  4. DBoth the s and p orbitals are spherical, differing only in their radius

Question 108

[2 marks]ionisation energy / solubility product
State the effect of increasing temperature on the solubility of iron(II) hydroxide in water.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 109

[2 marks]ionisation energy / solubility product
Why does dissolving iron(II) hydroxide in aqueous sodium hydroxide, rather than in pure water, decrease its solubility?
  1. ANaOH raises the temperature of the solution, which lowers the solubility of most ionic solids
  2. BNaOH provides the common ion OH-, which shifts the Fe(OH)2 solubility equilibrium to the left and lowers its solubility
  3. CNaOH lowers the ionic product of water, which directly reduces how much Fe(OH)2 can dissolve
  4. DNaOH reacts with the Fe2+ ions already present to form a completely different insoluble complex that has nothing to do with the original hydroxide equilibrium

Question 110

[2 marks]ionisation energy / solubility product
Which electron arrangement correctly represents the ground-state electron configuration of boron?
  1. A1s2 2p3
  2. B1s2 2s2 2p1
  3. C1s1 2s2 2p2
  4. D1s2 2s1 2p2

Question 201

[1 marks]electrochemistry / fuel cells
Calculate EθE^\theta of a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell with an acidic electrolyte, given Eθ(O2/H2O)=+1.23E^\theta(\text{O}_2/\text{H}_2\text{O}) = +1.23 V and Eθ(H+/H2)=0.00E^\theta(\text{H}^+/\text{H}_2) = 0.00 V.
  1. A+2.46+2.46 V
  2. B−1.23-1.23 V
  3. C+0.62+0.62 V
  4. D+1.23+1.23 V

Question 202

[1 marks]electrochemistry / fuel cells
In an electrolysis of aqueous CuSO4_4, 1.901.90 A flowed for 50 minutes and the cathode gained 1.831.83 g of copper (Ar=63.5A_r = 63.5). Calculate the Avogadro constant. [e=1.6×10−19e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} C]
  1. A6.18×10236.18 \times 10^{23} mol−1^{-1}
  2. B1.24×10241.24 \times 10^{24} mol−1^{-1}
  3. C6.02×10226.02 \times 10^{22} mol−1^{-1}
  4. D3.09×10233.09 \times 10^{23} mol−1^{-1}

Question 203

[1 marks]electrochemistry / fuel cells
Why is measuring the decrease in mass of the anode preferred to measuring the increase in mass of the cathode in this experiment?
  1. ACopper only dissolves at the cathode
  2. BThe anode is heavier and easier to weigh
  3. CThe cathode deposit may be loose or contain trapped impurities, whereas the anode loss corresponds exactly to the copper dissolved
  4. DThe anode does not change mass, so it is a good control

Question 204

[1 marks]electrochemistry / fuel cells
Write the overall equation for the cell reaction occurring in a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 205

[2 marks]electrochemistry / fuel cells
An advantage of hydrogen-oxygen fuel cells over burning fossil fuels is that they
  1. Arequire no maintenance whatsoever and can run indefinitely without any fuel supply
  2. Bproduce large quantities of carbon dioxide but none of the other pollutants that fossil fuels release
  3. Cgenerate electricity through a combustion reaction that is generally considered easier to control safely than a fuel cell's electrochemical reaction
  4. Dproduce only water as a product and convert chemical energy to electrical energy more efficiently than combustion

Question 206

[2 marks]electrochemistry / fuel cells
A limitation of using hydrogen-oxygen fuel cells is that they
  1. Aneed a continuous supply of hydrogen gas, which is difficult and costly to store and transport safely
  2. Brelease large amounts of carbon monoxide, unburnt hydrocarbons and other harmful pollutants into the surrounding atmosphere
  3. Ccannot generate a usable electrical current for more than a few seconds at a time
  4. Dproduce a strongly acidic waste product that must be neutralised before disposal

Question 207

[2 marks]electrochemistry / fuel cells
In the electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulphate using copper electrodes, which observation is correct?
  1. ABubbles of oxygen gas are produced vigorously at both the anode and the cathode continuously throughout the entire electrolysis process
  2. BThe cathode loses mass steadily while the anode gains an equal mass of copper
  3. CThe blue colour of the solution fades to colourless as copper is permanently removed from the circuit
  4. DThe blue colour of the solution stays roughly constant while the anode loses mass and the cathode gains a copper coating

Question 208

[2 marks]electrochemistry / fuel cells
During the electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulphate with copper electrodes, what happens to the copper anode?
  1. AIt dissolves away entirely within the first few seconds of electrolysis, well before the cathode shows any visible change
  2. BIt gains mass as copper is deposited onto it from solution
  3. CIt remains completely unaffected while only the cathode changes
  4. DIt loses mass as copper atoms are oxidised and dissolve into solution as Cu2+ ions

Question 301

[1 marks]kinetics / mechanisms
The acid-catalysed iodination of butanone is zero order with respect to iodine. What does this tell you about the mechanism?
  1. AIodine is consumed in the rate-determining step
  2. BThe slow, rate-determining step is the keto-enol tautomerism, which does not involve iodine
  3. CIodine is not involved in the reaction at all
  4. DThe reaction has only one step

Question 302

[1 marks]kinetics / mechanisms
Deduce the units of the rate constant for a reaction that is third order overall.
  1. As−1^{-1}
  2. Bmol dm−3^{-3} s−1^{-1}
  3. Cmol−2^{-2} dm6^{6} s−1^{-1}
  4. Dmol−1^{-1} dm3^{3} s−1^{-1}

Question 303

[1 marks]kinetics / mechanisms
Why do some collisions between reactant particles fail to produce a reaction?
  1. AThe particles are too large to touch
  2. BThe collision energy is below the activation energy, or the orientation is unfavourable
  3. CThe temperature is always too low
  4. DThe catalyst has been used up

Question 304

[2 marks]kinetics / mechanisms
How can the rate of the acid-catalysed reaction between butanone and iodine be followed experimentally?
  1. AMeasure the total volume of gas produced at the end of the reaction only
  2. BWeigh the sealed reaction flask carefully once at the very start and once again at the very end of the whole timed reaction period
  3. CMeasure the melting point of the reaction mixture at regular time intervals
  4. DWithdraw samples at time intervals and titrate the remaining iodine against standard sodium thiosulphate solution

Question 305

[2 marks]kinetics / mechanisms
In the acid-catalysed iodination of butanone, which step is rate-determining?
  1. AThe slow, acid-catalysed conversion of the keto form of butanone into its enol form, before any iodine reacts
  2. BThe fast reaction between the enol form of butanone and iodine, which quickly gives the iodo-ketone product and HI
  3. CThe dissociation of hydrogen iodide, HI, into hydrogen and iodine gas
  4. DThe re-formation of the keto form of butanone from its enol tautomer after the reaction is complete

Question 306

[1 marks]kinetics / mechanisms
Name the type of reaction by which the keto form of butanone is converted into its enol form.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 307

[2 marks]kinetics / mechanisms
Which graph correctly describes how rate varies with concentration for a zero order reaction?
  1. AA horizontal line, since the rate is independent of the reactant's concentration
  2. BA curve that bends upward more steeply as concentration increases
  3. CA straight line with a negative gradient, since rate falls as concentration rises
  4. DA straight line through the origin, since the rate is directly proportional to concentration

Question 308

[2 marks]kinetics / mechanisms
Which graph correctly describes how rate varies with concentration for a second order reaction?
  1. AA horizontal line, since the rate does not depend on the reactant's concentration at all under these conditions
  2. BA straight line through the origin, since rate is directly proportional to concentration
  3. CAn upward-curving line (parabola), since rate is proportional to the square of the concentration
  4. DA straight line with a negative gradient as concentration increases

Question 309

[2 marks]kinetics / mechanisms
Why does an increase in temperature increase the rate of a chemical reaction?
  1. AThe reactants change into a completely different set of chemical substances that happen to react together faster than the originals did
  2. BA greater proportion of particles have energy exceeding the activation energy, and collisions become more frequent
  3. CThe activation energy of the reaction is permanently lowered whenever the temperature rises
  4. DParticles become larger at higher temperature, making collisions between them more likely

Question 401

[1 marks]group IV chemistry
State the shape of the tetrachlorides of the Group (IV) elements and explain the trend SiCl4_4 (58 °58\,°C) < GeCl4_4 (87 °87\,°C) < SnCl4_4 (114 °114\,°C).
  1. ATrigonal pyramidal; boiling point rises because of hydrogen bonding
  2. BTetrahedral; boiling point rises because larger molecules have more electrons and stronger van der Waals forces
  3. CTetrahedral; boiling point rises because the covalent bonds get stronger
  4. DSquare planar; boiling point rises because the bonds become more ionic

Question 402

[1 marks]group IV chemistry
Explain why CCl4_4 does not hydrolyse whereas SiCl4_4 does.
  1. ACCl4_4 is ionic while SiCl4_4 is covalent
  2. BCCl4_4 is insoluble, so hydrolysis is impossible in principle
  3. CCarbon is small and has no available d orbitals, so water cannot coordinate to expand its octet
  4. DThe C–Cl bond is weaker than the Si–Cl bond

Question 403

[1 marks]group IV chemistry
State and explain the acid-base nature of GeO2_2.
  1. AAcidic only, because it reacts with NaOH
  2. BAmphoteric, because germanium lies on the metal/non-metal borderline and the oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis
  3. CBasic, because germanium is a metal
  4. DNeutral, because germanium is a semiconductor

Question 404

[2 marks]group IV chemistry
Write a balanced equation for the reaction between silicon(IV) chloride and water.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 405

[2 marks]group IV chemistry
Write a balanced equation for the reduction of iron(III) oxide by carbon monoxide.

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Question 406

[2 marks]group IV chemistry
Write a balanced equation for the reaction between tin(IV) oxide and concentrated hydrochloric acid.

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Question 407

[2 marks]group IV chemistry
Write a balanced equation for the reaction between lead(IV) oxide and concentrated hydrochloric acid.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 408

[2 marks]group IV chemistry
What is the acid-base nature of carbon monoxide, CO?
  1. AStrongly basic -- it reacts readily with acids to form salts and water
  2. BAmphoteric -- it reacts with both acids and alkalis to form salts
  3. CNeutral -- it does not react with either acids or alkalis to form a salt
  4. DStrongly acidic -- it reacts readily with alkalis to form carbonate salts

Question 409

[2 marks]group IV chemistry
Why does the reaction of PbO2 with concentrated hydrochloric acid produce chlorine gas as well as PbCl2?
  1. APb(IV) in PbO2 is a strong oxidising agent and oxidises Cl- ions to Cl2 while itself being reduced to Pb(II)
  2. BPbO2 acts purely as a base, and the chlorine comes from a side reaction with atmospheric oxygen
  3. CThe reaction produces chlorine simply because lead metal is more reactive than chlorine and displaces it directly from the acid
  4. DConcentrated HCl decomposes into chlorine gas and hydrogen gas whenever it is gently warmed in the open air

Question 501

[1 marks]period 3 chlorides / group II
The melting points of the Period 3 chlorides fall from NaCl (808 °808\,°C) to SiCl4_4 (−70 °-70\,°C). What explains this?
  1. AThe chlorides become more ionic across the period
  2. BThe relative molecular masses decrease across the period
  3. CThe bonding changes from giant ionic (strong electrostatic forces) to simple molecular (weak van der Waals forces)
  4. DThe chlorides become more soluble across the period

Question 502

[1 marks]period 3 chlorides / group II
Write the balanced equation for the reaction of phosphorus(V) chloride with water.
  1. APCl5+3H2O→H3PO3+5HCl\text{PCl}_5 + 3\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{H}_3\text{PO}_3 + 5\text{HCl}
  2. BPCl5+5H2O→P(OH)5+5HCl\text{PCl}_5 + 5\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{P(OH)}_5 + 5\text{HCl}
  3. CPCl5+4H2O→H3PO4+5HCl\text{PCl}_5 + 4\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{H}_3\text{PO}_4 + 5\text{HCl}
  4. DPCl5+H2O→POCl3+2HCl\text{PCl}_5 + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{POCl}_3 + 2\text{HCl}

Question 503

[1 marks]period 3 chlorides / group II
A 6.61256.6125 g sample of a Group (II) nitrate, M(NO3_3)2_2, decomposes to give 18751875 cm3^3 of gas at r.t.p. Identify M.
  1. AStrontium
  2. BBarium
  3. CMagnesium
  4. DCalcium

Question 504

[1 marks]period 3 chlorides / group II
Write an equation showing what happens when sodium chloride dissolves in water.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 505

[2 marks]period 3 chlorides / group II
Write a balanced equation for the hydrolysis of aluminium chloride in water.

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Question 506

[2 marks]period 3 chlorides / group II
Which pair of observations is seen when sodium metal reacts with chlorine gas?
  1. AA green flame, and formation of a black solid residue
  2. BA bright yellow/orange flame, and formation of a white solid
  3. CA blue flame, and formation of a strong-smelling gas only
  4. DNo visible flame at all, and formation of a colourless liquid

Question 507

[2 marks]period 3 chlorides / group II
Why is sodium chloride used as a food preservative?
  1. AIt lowers the water activity around microbial cells by osmosis, dehydrating and killing the microorganisms
  2. BIt directly kills bacteria and other microorganisms by reacting chemically with the proteins in their cell walls
  3. CIt raises the pH of food enough to prevent any microorganism from surviving on its surface
  4. DIt coats the surface of food in an airtight layer that stops oxygen reaching microorganisms

Question 508

[2 marks]period 3 chlorides / group II
Why does aqueous aluminium chloride form an acidic solution while aqueous sodium chloride is neutral?
  1. AAluminium chloride simply contains more chlorine atoms per formula unit than sodium chloride
  2. BAl3+ is small and highly charged, so it polarises water molecules enough to release H+ ions on hydrolysis, unlike Na+
  3. CAlCl3 reacts with atmospheric carbon dioxide in solution, producing carbonic acid
  4. DSodium chloride is actually a stronger acid than aluminium chloride, so its aqueous solution must be the more acidic one

Question 601

[1 marks]aldehydes / organic synthesis
An aldehyde reacts with excess HCN in the presence of a trace of KCN at 1010–20 °20\,°C. Name the reaction and describe the first step of the mechanism.
  1. AElectrophilic addition; H+^+ attacks the carbonyl oxygen
  2. BNucleophilic substitution; CN−^- displaces the oxygen
  3. CNucleophilic addition; CN−^- attacks the electrophilic carbonyl carbon, breaking the C=O π\pi bond
  4. DFree-radical addition; a CN radical adds to the carbonyl carbon

Question 602

[1 marks]aldehydes / organic synthesis
2,3-dimethylbutanedial is oxidised in reaction x and reduced in reaction y. State the reagents for each.
  1. Ax: acidified KMnO4_4/K2_2Cr2_2O7_7, warm; y: NaBH4_4 (or LiAlH4_4)
  2. Bx: NaBH4_4; y: acidified K2_2Cr2_2O7_7
  3. Cx: Tollens' reagent; y: H2_2/Ni at 150 °°C only
  4. Dx: concentrated H2_2SO4_4; y: aqueous NaOH

Question 603

[1 marks]aldehydes / organic synthesis
Describe a one-step laboratory test to distinguish 2,3-dimethylbutanedioic acid (H) from 2,3-dimethylbutane-1,4-diol (I).
  1. AAdd 2,4-DNPH: H gives an orange precipitate, I does not
  2. BAdd sodium hydrogencarbonate solution: H effervesces (CO2_2), I gives no reaction
  3. CAdd bromine water: H decolourises it, I does not
  4. DAdd Tollens' reagent: I gives a silver mirror, H does not

Question 604

[2 marks]aldehydes / organic synthesis
Which mechanism correctly describes reaction w, the formation of a cyanohydrin from an aldehyde and excess HCN?
  1. ACN- attacks the electrophilic carbonyl carbon, breaking the C=O pi bond to give an alkoxide, which is then protonated
  2. BCN- substitutes directly for a hydrogen atom on the carbon chain next to the carbonyl group
  3. CThe carbonyl carbon and CN- form a bond by free-radical addition initiated by ultraviolet light
  4. DH+ from HCN attacks the carbonyl oxygen atom of the aldehyde first, and CN- then substitutes directly for that oxygen atom entirely afterwards

Question 605

[2 marks]aldehydes / organic synthesis
Give the structural formula of H, the product formed when 2,3-dimethylbutanedial is oxidised.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 606

[2 marks]aldehydes / organic synthesis
Give the structural formula of I, the product formed when 2,3-dimethylbutanedial is reduced.

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Question 607

[1 marks]aldehydes / organic synthesis
Name compound H, the diacid formed by oxidising 2,3-dimethylbutanedial.

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Question 608

[1 marks]aldehydes / organic synthesis
Name compound I, the diol formed by reducing 2,3-dimethylbutanedial.

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Question 609

[2 marks]aldehydes / organic synthesis
What type of reaction occurs when diacid H and diol I react to form compound J?
  1. AAddition, since the two molecules simply join together directly with no small molecule lost from either one
  2. BSubstitution, since a hydrogen atom on H is simply replaced by a fragment of I
  3. CCondensation (esterification), since an ester link forms with the elimination of small molecules of water
  4. DElimination, since a small molecule is removed from within a single reactant only

Question 701

[1 marks]amino acids / drugs
Proline melts at 223 °223\,°C, far higher than a comparable amine or acid. Explain why.
  1. AIt forms covalent network bonding in the solid
  2. BIt has a very high relative molecular mass
  3. CIt contains a ring, which makes the molecule rigid
  4. DIt exists as a zwitterion, so strong ionic attractions between the ions must be overcome

Question 702

[1 marks]amino acids / drugs
Which pair of equations shows how proline acts as a buffer?
  1. AProline cannot act as a buffer because it has only one acidic group
  2. B−COO−+H+→−COOH-\text{COO}^- + \text{H}^+ \rightarrow -\text{COOH} and +NH2+OH−→NH+H2O^+\text{NH}_2 + \text{OH}^- \rightarrow \text{NH} + \text{H}_2\text{O}
  3. C−COOH+H+→−COOH2+-\text{COOH} + \text{H}^+ \rightarrow -\text{COOH}_2^+ and NH+OH−→NHOH−\text{NH} + \text{OH}^- \rightarrow \text{NHOH}^-
  4. D−COO−+OH−→−COO22−-\text{COO}^- + \text{OH}^- \rightarrow -\text{COO}_2^{2-} and +NH2+H+→NH32+^+\text{NH}_2 + \text{H}^+ \rightarrow \text{NH}_3^{2+}

Question 703

[2 marks]amino acids / drugs
Which best describes the structure of proline in neutral aqueous solution?
  1. AA cation only, with both the ring nitrogen and the carboxyl group carrying a positive charge
  2. BAn anion only, with both the ring nitrogen and the carboxyl group carrying a negative charge
  3. CA zwitterion, with the ring nitrogen protonated (+NH2 in the ring) and the carboxyl group as -COO-
  4. DA fully neutral molecule overall, with an uncharged ring nitrogen atom and an uncharged, undissociated -COOH group

Question 704

[2 marks]amino acids / drugs
What happens when thalidomide reacts with Br2(aq)?
  1. ABr2 adds directly across a carbon-carbon double bond somewhere in the ring system, by a typical electrophilic addition mechanism
  2. BThe imide rings of thalidomide are completely hydrolysed by the bromine water
  3. CNo reaction occurs, since thalidomide's rings contain no sites reactive towards bromine
  4. DElectrophilic substitution occurs on the benzene ring of the phthalimide portion, giving a bromo-substituted product and HBr

Question 705

[2 marks]amino acids / drugs
What happens when thalidomide is treated with acidic solution?
  1. AThe benzene ring of the phthalimide group becomes completely saturated by the direct addition of hydrogen atoms right across it
  2. BNo observable reaction occurs, since amide linkages are unaffected by aqueous acid
  3. CThe molecule is reduced, converting its ring nitrogen atoms into ring oxygen atoms
  4. DThe amide/imide linkages in its rings are hydrolysed, breaking the rings open into carboxylic acid and amine fragments

Question 706

[2 marks]amino acids / drugs
Why does thalidomide exist in two different forms?
  1. AIt has a chiral carbon atom bonded to four different groups, so it exists as a pair of enantiomers
  2. BIt can lose or gain a water molecule reversibly, giving two structurally different compounds
  3. CIt has two separate rings that can rotate freely relative to each other, giving conformational isomers only
  4. DIt contains a carbon-carbon double bond that can exist in cis and trans geometric forms

Question 707

[1 marks]amino acids / drugs
State the class of isomerism shown by the two forms of thalidomide.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 708

[2 marks]amino acids / drugs
How can an unknown sample be identified as thalidomide using solubility tests?
  1. ADissolve the sample in water only and measure how long it takes to fully dissolve at room temperature
  2. BAdd the sample to concentrated sulphuric acid and observe carefully whether or not it chars on contact, since this simple test can sometimes help narrow down which functional groups a compound contains
  3. CMeasure the melting point of the sample only, since solubility itself cannot help identify an unknown compound
  4. DTest its solubility in a range of solvents (e.g. water, dilute acid, dilute alkali, an organic solvent) and compare the pattern with reference data for thalidomide

Question 801

[1 marks]amino acids / polymers
Aspartame is completely hydrolysed in aqueous HCl. Which products are formed?
  1. APhenylalanine and ethanoic acid
  2. BGlycine, alanine and ethanol
  3. CAspartic acid, phenylalanine and methanol
  4. DAspartic acid and methanol only

Question 802

[1 marks]amino acids / polymers
Compare the basic strengths of NH3_3, CH3_3CH2_2NH2_2 and C6_6H5_5NH2_2.
  1. AAll three have the same basic strength
  2. BC6_6H5_5NH2_2 > NH3_3 > CH3_3CH2_2NH2_2
  3. CNH3_3 > CH3_3CH2_2NH2_2 > C6_6H5_5NH2_2
  4. DCH3_3CH2_2NH2_2 > NH3_3 > C6_6H5_5NH2_2

Question 803

[1 marks]amino acids / polymers
Why is the disposal of condensation polymers in landfill more environmentally acceptable than that of addition polymers?
  1. ACondensation polymers are lighter, so they take up less space
  2. BCondensation polymers dissolve completely in rainwater
  3. CAddition polymers release toxic gases in landfill
  4. DCondensation polymers contain hydrolysable ester/amide links so they are biodegradable, whereas addition polymers have inert C–C backbones that persist

Question 804

[2 marks]amino acids / polymers
Which two functional groups, among others, are present in aspartame?
  1. AAn ester group and an amide group
  2. BA ketone group and a nitrile group
  3. CAn alkene group and a halogenoalkane group
  4. DA nitro group and a sulphonic acid group

Question 805

[1 marks]amino acids / polymers
Name the functional group responsible for the peptide-type linkage in aspartame.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 806

[1 marks]amino acids / polymers
Comment on the solubility of aspartame in water.

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Question 807

[1 marks]amino acids / polymers
Name the two amino acids from which aspartame is made.

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Question 808

[2 marks]amino acids / polymers
Why is ethylamine, CH3CH2NH2, a stronger base than ammonia, NH3?
  1. AEthylamine has a larger relative molecular mass than ammonia, and this alone is sometimes mistakenly thought to explain basic strength
  2. BThe ethyl group pushes electron density onto the nitrogen atom, making its lone pair more available to accept a proton
  3. CEthylamine's nitrogen lone pair is delocalised into a pi system, making it more available to accept a proton
  4. DAmmonia's nitrogen atom carries a small partial positive charge that is sometimes said to repel any incoming proton in solution

Question 809

[2 marks]amino acids / polymers
Why is phenylamine, C6H5NH2, a weaker base than ammonia, NH3?
  1. APhenylamine has no lone pair of electrons on its nitrogen atom at all
  2. BThe benzene ring withdraws electron density from nitrogen through an inductive effect only, with no delocalisation involved
  3. CPhenylamine's nitrogen atom already carries a full positive charge before any proton is added
  4. DThe nitrogen lone pair is delocalised into the benzene ring's pi system, making it less available to accept a proton

Question 810

[2 marks]amino acids / polymers
Which statement correctly distinguishes a condensation polymer from an addition polymer?
  1. AA condensation polymer has no obvious repeat unit; an addition polymer has a clearly defined repeat unit in every case
  2. BA condensation polymer forms with elimination of a small molecule and contains hydrolysable links; an addition polymer forms from C=C monomers with no small molecule lost
  3. CA condensation polymer generally contains additional elements such as nitrogen or oxygen beyond carbon and hydrogen in its backbone; an addition polymer is typically made of carbon and hydrogen only, with no such extra heteroatoms present as a rule
  4. DA condensation polymer is typically considered a natural material; an addition polymer is typically considered synthetic and man-made

Question 901

[1 marks]corrosion / transition metals
Why are blocks of magnesium attached to underground iron water pipes?
  1. AMagnesium is less reactive than iron, so it protects it from the soil
  2. BMagnesium is more reactive than iron, so it acts as a sacrificial anode and corrodes in preference to the pipe
  3. CMagnesium forms an impermeable coating over the iron surface
  4. DMagnesium reacts with water to release hydrogen that displaces oxygen

Question 902

[1 marks]corrosion / transition metals
Explain why a tin-coated food can rusts quickly once the tin coating is scratched.
  1. AThe scratch lets air into a sealed can
  2. BTin is more reactive than iron and protects it sacrificially
  3. CTin dissolves in the food acids and exposes the iron
  4. DTin is less reactive than iron, so the exposed iron becomes the anode and corrodes faster

Question 903

[1 marks]corrosion / transition metals
Aqueous copper(II) ions react with a little ammonia to give a pale blue solid N, then with excess ammonia to give a deep blue solution M. Give the formulae of N and M.
  1. AN == Cu(OH)2_2; M == [Cu(NH3_3)4_4(H2_2O)2_2]2+^{2+}
  2. BN == CuO; M == [Cu(NH3_3)6_6]2+^{2+}
  3. CN == CuCl2_2; M == [CuCl4_4]2−^{2-}
  4. DN == Cu(NH3_3)2_2; M == [Cu(H2_2O)6_6]2+^{2+}

Question 904

[2 marks]corrosion / transition metals
Why does galvanised (zinc-coated) iron roofing not rust even when the zinc coating is scratched?
  1. AZinc forms an unreactive alloy with iron at the scratch that cannot be attacked by oxygen or water
  2. BZinc is more reactive than iron, so it continues to corrode preferentially and protects the exposed iron (sacrificial protection)
  3. CThe scratch reseals itself almost immediately as a fresh, protective layer of zinc oxide reforms and fully covers the exposed area of iron
  4. DIron is more reactive than zinc, so the iron corrodes instead and protects the remaining zinc coating

Question 905

[2 marks]corrosion / transition metals
How is phenylamine isolated from its reaction mixture by steam distillation?
  1. ASteam is bubbled through the cold mixture only, with no heating applied at any stage of the process
  2. BThe mixture is frozen and then sublimed directly, with phenylamine collected as a solid on a cold surface
  3. CThe mixture is heated strongly and continuously under reflux until phenylamine alone eventually boils off directly at its own true boiling point, unaided by steam
  4. DSteam is passed into the heated mixture; phenylamine co-distils with the steam below its normal boiling point, and the vapours are condensed and collected

Question 906

[2 marks]corrosion / transition metals
Why is simple distillation not an appropriate method for isolating phenylamine from its reaction mixture?
  1. APhenylamine has a high boiling point and would decompose or oxidise if heated strongly enough to distil it directly
  2. BPhenylamine reacts explosively with glass apparatus when heated above room temperature
  3. CPhenylamine is actually completely insoluble in the reaction mixture at any temperature and simply cannot be vaporised under any laboratory conditions
  4. DSimple distillation can only ever separate a solid from a liquid, not two liquids with reasonably close boiling points from each other

Question 907

[1 marks]corrosion / transition metals
State the colour of aqueous [Cu(H2O)6]2+ ions.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 908

[2 marks]corrosion / transition metals
What is observed when a small volume of aqueous ammonia is added dropwise to aqueous copper(II) sulphate?
  1. AA bright orange precipitate forms and effervescence is observed
  2. BA deep blue solution forms directly with no precipitate stage
  3. CA pale blue precipitate forms as Cu(OH)2 is produced
  4. DThe solution turns immediately colourless with no precipitate at all

Question 1001

[1 marks]environmental chemistry / nanomaterials
Two allotropes of carbon are shown: A is a rolled single layer of hexagons and B is stacked hexagonal sheets. Name A and B, and explain why A is a nanomaterial.
  1. AA == graphite, B == diamond; A is a nanomaterial because it conducts electricity
  2. BA == fullerene, B == diamond; A is a nanomaterial because it is a molecule
  3. CA == carbon nanotube, B == graphite; A is a nanomaterial because its diameter lies in the 11–100100 nm range
  4. DA == graphene, B == charcoal; A is a nanomaterial because it is only one atom thick

Question 1002

[1 marks]environmental chemistry / nanomaterials
Comment on the potential hazards of using nanomaterials.
  1. AThey are radioactive and emit ionising radiation
  2. BThey dissolve in water, contaminating drinking supplies
  3. CThey are chemically inert, so they cannot react with anything
  4. DTheir very small size lets them penetrate skin, lungs and cells, and their large surface area makes them reactive, so toxicity and long-term effects are uncertain

Question 1003

[2 marks]environmental chemistry / nanomaterials
Which is a genuine advantage of sorting waste material before disposal?
  1. AIt generally makes waste disposal considerably cheaper overall for most households in the long run
  2. BRecyclable materials can be recovered and reused, reducing the demand for new raw materials
  3. CIt substantially reduces how much waste eventually needs to be sent to landfill sites over time
  4. DIt reduces the need for some further waste treatment processes to be carried out afterwards

Question 1004

[2 marks]environmental chemistry / nanomaterials
Which is another genuine advantage of sorting waste material before disposal?
  1. AHazardous or biodegradable waste can be separated out and treated safely, reducing pollution
  2. BIt automatically converts all organic waste into clean drinking water
  3. CIt prevents any landfill site from ever needing to be monitored again
  4. DIt removes most of the pressure on households to reduce how much waste they actually produce day to day

Question 1005

[2 marks]environmental chemistry / nanomaterials
Which is a genuine problem associated with land filling?
  1. ALandfill sites are sometimes claimed to increase the fertility of the surrounding soil, though this is not generally true
  2. BLandfill sites produce no gases of any kind as waste decomposes
  3. CLeachate produced within the landfill can contaminate groundwater supplies
  4. DLandfill is the only waste disposal method that produces no odour at all

Question 1006

[2 marks]environmental chemistry / nanomaterials
Which is another genuine problem associated with land filling?
  1. ALandfill waste rarely attracts significant numbers of pests or vermin under normal, well-managed conditions
  2. BLandfill sites remove unpleasant odours from the surrounding area entirely
  3. CDecomposing waste produces methane, a flammable greenhouse gas
  4. DLandfill sites take up no land area, since waste is compacted to almost nothing

Question 1007

[1 marks]environmental chemistry / nanomaterials
Name a further problem, besides leachate and methane production, associated with land filling.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

The answers, and why they are the answers

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