Danho
ZIMSEC O Level · 4025/2 · J2023

Biology Paper 2 June 2023

Questions
88
Total marks
120
Time allowed
120 min
Syllabus code
4025/2

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Questions
88
Pass mark
53
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Answer every question in the printed order, get marked at the end, then see the answers.

The questions

Section A

Section A, Question 1

[1 marks]Cell structure and organisation
Fig. 1.1 shows a palisade cell. Name the process that takes place in the many oval bodies, marked with internal stripes, that lie in its cytoplasm.
  1. APhotosynthesis, since these bodies hold the chlorophyll that traps light energy and uses it to make sugar.
  2. BProtein synthesis, since these bodies carry the ribosomes on which amino acids are joined into long chains.
  3. CAerobic respiration, since these bodies carry a folded inner membrane holding the enzymes that release energy from glucose.
  4. DOsmosis, since these bodies draw water in from the cell sap and so keep the whole cell firm and turgid.
[1 marks]Cell structure and organisation
Fig. 1.1 shows a palisade cell. Name the organelle, drawn as a small body with a folded line inside it, in which aerobic respiration takes place.

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[1 marks]Chemicals of life
Name the chemical of life that makes up the cell wall of a palisade cell.

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[1 marks]Chemicals of life
Name the chemical of life found in the nucleus of a palisade cell, which carries the instructions the cell inherits.

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[1 marks]Reproduction
Fig. 1.2 shows a cell involved in human reproduction, surrounded by a jelly coat. Identify this cell.

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[1 marks]Cell structure and organisation
Fig. 1.1 shows a palisade cell and Fig. 1.2 shows a human ovum. Which structural difference between the two cells is correct?
  1. AThe ovum has chloroplasts through its cytoplasm, while the palisade cell has none of them.
  2. BThe palisade cell has a large permanent vacuole, while the ovum has no such vacuole.
  3. CThe palisade cell has a nucleus, while the ovum loses its own nucleus as it matures.
  4. DThe ovum has a cellulose cell wall, while the palisade cell is bounded only by a cell membrane.
[2 marks]Reproduction
Fig. 1.2 shows a human ovum surrounded by a jelly coat. How is the jelly coat related to the function of the ovum?
  1. AIt protects the cell and, once one sperm has entered, it changes so that further sperms are kept out.
  2. BIt beats steadily to move the cell along the oviduct towards the sperms swimming up to meet it.
  3. CIt carries the whole food store of the cell, the yolk, which feeds the growing embryo until it implants.
  4. DIt holds the haploid nucleus of the cell, which fuses with the sperm nucleus at fertilisation.
[2 marks]Reproduction
The cytoplasm of a human ovum is large and packed with stored food. How is this related to the function of the ovum?
  1. AThe stored food makes the ovum heavy, so that it sinks down the oviduct and reaches the uterus far more quickly.
  2. BThe stored food nourishes the zygote and the young embryo before it implants and draws food from the mother.
  3. CThe stored food supplies the energy used to spin the jelly coat around the outside of the cell.
  4. DThe stored food is respired by the sperms as they swim up the oviduct to reach the ovum.

Section A, Question 2

[2 marks]Enzymes
Fig. 2.1 shows how the rate of an enzyme controlled reaction changes as the temperature is raised, with the temperatures A, B and C marked on the horizontal axis. Which description of the shape of the curve is correct?
  1. AThe rate stays the same from A to B and then rises sharply to a peak somewhere beyond C.
  2. BThe rate climbs steadily all the way from A to C, so the curve is a straight line sloping up to the right.
  3. CThe rate falls steadily all the way from A to C, so the curve is a straight line sloping down to the right.
  4. DThe rate rises slowly at first and then steeply to a peak at B, and falls sharply after B to near zero at C.
[1 marks]Enzymes
Fig. 2.1 shows the effect of temperature on the rate of an enzyme controlled reaction. State the term that describes the temperature at B, at which the rate is highest.

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[2 marks]Enzymes
In an enzyme controlled reaction the rate increases as the temperature is raised from 10 degrees Celsius towards the optimum. Which statement explains this increase?
  1. AThe enzyme molecules multiply as they are heated, so that there are many more active sites for the substrate to fill.
  2. BThe substrate molecules are broken down by the heat itself, so the enzyme is left with much less work to do.
  3. CThe enzyme and substrate molecules gain kinetic energy, so they collide more often and more of the collisions succeed.
  4. DThe enzyme molecules are denatured more slowly, so many more of them are left to work on the substrate.
[1 marks]Enzymes
Name the structure formed when a substrate molecule fits into the active site of an enzyme.

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[2 marks]Enzymes
Enzymes are proteins. Well above the optimum temperature the rate of an enzyme controlled reaction falls to zero, and cooling the mixture again does not restore it. Which statement explains this?
  1. AThe heat dissolves the enzyme in the water of the mixture, so that its molecules become far too dilute to meet the substrate.
  2. BThe heat drives the enzyme molecules apart so quickly that they can no longer collide with any of the substrate molecules.
  3. CThe heat turns the enzyme into a different enzyme, one that acts on a substrate which is not present in the mixture.
  4. DThe heat breaks the bonds holding the folded shape of the enzyme, so the active site changes and the substrate no longer fits.
[1 marks]Enzymes
An enzyme speeds up a reaction in a cell and is not used up or changed by it, so it can be used again and again. State the term that describes an enzyme acting in this way.

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[1 marks]Enzymes
Which statement describes the property of enzymes known as specificity?
  1. AEach enzyme acts on one substrate or one type of reaction, because the substrate must fit its active site.
  2. BEach enzyme is needed in large amounts, because one molecule can deal with only one substrate molecule.
  3. CEach enzyme is used up in the reaction it controls, so a fresh supply must be made for every substrate molecule.
  4. DEach enzyme works fastest at a pH of 7, since the cytoplasm of every living cell is exactly neutral.

Section A, Question 3

[1 marks]Transport in plants
Name the tissue at the centre of a dicotyledonous root that carries water and dissolved mineral salts up to the stem.

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[1 marks]Transport in plants
Name the tissue of a dicotyledonous root that carries dissolved food made in the leaves down to the growing and storage regions.

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[1 marks]Transport in plants
Name the long, thin outgrowth of an epidermal cell of a root that takes in water and mineral salts from the soil.

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[1 marks]Transport in plants
Which tissue forms the outermost covering of a young dicotyledonous root?
  1. AThe xylem, the star shaped core of dead lignified vessels at the very middle of the root.
  2. BThe endodermis, the ring of cells that controls the water passing into the central tissues.
  3. CThe cortex, the wide layer of loosely packed cells in which the root stores its food.
  4. DThe epidermis, the single outer layer of cells whose cells grow out into root hairs.
[1 marks]Transport in plants
Which feature of a root hair cell adapts it for taking in water from the soil?
  1. AIts thick waterproof outer wall, which stops the water it has already absorbed from leaking back out.
  2. BIts many chloroplasts, which trap the light reaching the soil and make food for the root.
  3. CIts narrow, greatly elongated shape, which gives a large surface area in contact with soil water.
  4. DIts ring of beating cilia, which sweeps soil water inwards towards the middle of the root.
[1 marks]Transport in plants
Besides carrying water and mineral salts up the plant, xylem also
  1. Amakes the food of the plant, because its cells are packed with chlorophyll.
  2. Bstores starch for the plant, because its cells are wide and have no living contents.
  3. Cstrengthens the plant, because its walls are thickened and stiffened with lignin.
  4. Dtraps nitrogen for the plant, because bacteria live inside its hollow vessels.
[2 marks]Transport in plants
A plant is losing water by transpiration faster than its roots can take water up. Which statement describes what happens to its cells?
  1. AThe cells lose water, their vacuoles shrink and they become flaccid, so leaves and soft stems droop.
  2. BThe cells take in air through the stomata, so they swell and the leaves are held out more firmly.
  3. CThe cells take in salts from the soil, so their sap becomes stronger and the leaves stand upright.
  4. DThe cells lose water, so their cell walls collapse inwards and the leaves become stiff and brittle.
[2 marks]Transport in plants
When a plant wilts, the guard cells lose their turgor and the stomata close. What effect does this have on the plant?
  1. AThe leaf takes in less carbon dioxide, so the rate of photosynthesis falls and less food is made.
  2. BWater vapour is forced into the leaf from the air, so the cells become turgid again in minutes.
  3. CMineral salts can no longer enter the leaf from the air, so it grows pale and turns yellow.
  4. DOxygen is trapped inside the leaf, so the rate of aerobic respiration in the leaf rises sharply.

Section A, Question 4

[2 marks]Coordination and response
State the function of the pinna in the mammalian ear.
  1. AIt funnels sound waves from the air around the head into the auditory canal.
  2. BIt converts the vibrations of sound into nerve impulses and sends them to the brain.
  3. CIt detects the position of the head, and so keeps the body balanced as it moves about.
  4. DIt equalises the air pressure on the two sides of the eardrum during swallowing.
[1 marks]Coordination and response
The auditory canal of the mammalian ear carries sound waves from the pinna to the eardrum. What is the function of the wax made by the glands lining this canal?
  1. AIt carries the vibrations across the middle ear to the oval window of the cochlea.
  2. BIt dissolves the weaker sound waves so that only the loudest reach the eardrum.
  3. CIt traps dust and microorganisms and keeps the lining and the eardrum moist.
  4. DIt amplifies the sound waves as they pass along the canal towards the eardrum.
[1 marks]Coordination and response
Name the thin membrane at the inner end of the auditory canal that vibrates when sound waves strike it.

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[1 marks]Coordination and response
State the function of the cochlea in the mammalian ear.
  1. AIt converts the vibrations into nerve impulses that pass along the auditory nerve to the brain.
  2. BIt holds the three small bones that carry the vibrations across the middle ear.
  3. CIt keeps the air pressure in the middle ear equal to the pressure outside the head.
  4. DIt collects the sound waves from the air all around the head and funnels them into the auditory canal.
[1 marks]Coordination and response
Name the part of the inner ear, made of three fluid filled tubes set at right angles to one another, that is concerned with balance.

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[2 marks]Coordination and response
A very loud explosion happens close to a person. Which effect on the ear is this most likely to have?
  1. AThe eustachian tube is blocked by fluid, so the person can no longer taste or smell properly.
  2. BThe semicircular canals fill with wax from the outer ear, so the sense of hearing is lost.
  3. CThe auditory canal is sealed by a plug of wax, so the sound waves cannot reach the eardrum.
  4. DThe eardrum is burst by the sudden large change in air pressure, so hearing is lost or reduced.
[2 marks]Coordination and response
Explain how a person with hereditary deafness can be helped.
  1. AA gene taken from a hearing parent can be injected into the ear, which repairs it at once.
  2. BA grommet can be put into the pinna, which lets the trapped sound waves out of the outer ear.
  3. CA course of antibiotics can be given, which clears the infection that damaged the inner ear.
  4. DA device called a cochlear implant can be fitted, which stimulates the auditory nerve directly.

Section A, Question 5

[1 marks]Microorganisms
Name the substance found in the core of a virus.

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[1 marks]Microorganisms
Which disease is caused by a virus?
  1. ARingworm, which is spread by contact and forms round scaly patches on the skin.
  2. BCholera, which is spread in dirty water and treated with rehydration salts and antibiotics.
  3. CMalaria, which is spread by a mosquito and caused by a protozoan carried in its saliva.
  4. DMeasles, which is spread in droplets and gives a fever, a runny nose and a red rash.
[1 marks]Microorganisms
Name the virus that attacks the lymphocytes of the human immune system and leads to AIDS.

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[2 marks]Microorganisms
Give one reason why a virus is not considered to be a living organism.
  1. AIt multiplies only inside a living host cell, using that cell's machinery to make copies of itself.
  2. BIt has a protein coat around its core, and a coat of protein is found in no living cell.
  3. CIt is destroyed by antibiotics, and a structure killed by a drug cannot have been alive.
  4. DIt is far smaller than any bacterium, and nothing that small can carry out all the processes of life.
[2 marks]Microorganisms
Which feature of a virus shows that it does not have a cellular structure?
  1. AIt has a single circular chromosome lying free in its cytoplasm, with plasmids beside it.
  2. BIt has many small mitochondria in its cytoplasm but no true nucleus around its DNA.
  3. CIt contains no cytoplasm and no cell membrane, only nucleic acid inside a protein coat.
  4. DIt has a cell wall of cellulose instead of a cell membrane around its cytoplasm.
[1 marks]Microorganisms
Name the small ring of DNA, separate from the main circular chromosome, found in the cytoplasm of many bacteria.

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[1 marks]Microorganisms
Name the whip like structure that projects from some bacteria and is used for movement.

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[1 marks]Microorganisms
Which statement describes the genetic material of a bacterial cell?
  1. AIt is a chain of amino acids stored in the ribosomes that lie against the cell wall.
  2. BIt is a circular strand of DNA lying free in the cytoplasm, with no membrane around it.
  3. CIt is a set of paired chromosomes held inside a true nucleus by a double nuclear membrane.
  4. DIt is a strand of RNA held inside the capsule that surrounds the outside of the cell.

Section A, Question 6

[2 marks]Genetics
Define the term co-dominance.
  1. AIt is the condition in which one allele of a gene masks the effect of the other in a heterozygote.
  2. BIt is the condition in which two alleles of the same gene are both fully expressed in a heterozygote.
  3. CIt is the condition in which two genes lying on one chromosome are inherited together as a unit.
  4. DIt is the condition in which a gene has three or more different alleles in a population.
[1 marks]Genetics
Name the inherited disease in which a gene mutation makes the red blood cells take on a curved, sickle shape.

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[1 marks]Genetics
Which disease is caused by a gene mutation?
  1. ARickets, in which the bones of a child stay soft for want of vitamin D.
  2. BCholera, which follows the swallowing of water containing a particular bacterium.
  3. CHaemophilia, in which the blood of the sufferer fails to clot properly after a wound.
  4. DKwashiorkor, which follows a long period spent on a diet that is very short of protein.
[1 marks]Genetics
Which factor increases the rate of mutation in living cells?
  1. AVisible light of low intensity, which is absorbed by the dark pigment of the skin.
  2. BA diet short of protein, which leaves the cells without the amino acids they need to grow.
  3. CA rise in the humidity of the air, which slows the loss of water from the body surface.
  4. DGamma radiation, which is ionising and damages the DNA of the cells it passes through.
[1 marks]Genetics
Name the type of radiation in sunlight that damages the DNA of skin cells and can lead to skin cancer.

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[2 marks]Genetics
A man of blood group B is heterozygous, carrying one B allele and one O allele. His wife is of blood group AB, carrying one A allele and one B allele. What is the probability that a child of theirs will be of blood group O?
  1. A1 in 2, since half of the father's gametes carry the O allele he is heterozygous for.
  2. B3 in 4, since three of the four boxes hold at least one O allele between them.
  3. C0, since the mother has no O allele that she could pass on to a child.
  4. D1 in 4, since one of the four boxes of the Punnett square would hold two O alleles.
[1 marks]Genetics
In the ABO blood group system the A allele and the B allele are co-dominant, and the O allele is recessive to both. A person inherits an A allele from one parent and an O allele from the other. What is this person's blood group?
  1. AGroup B, because the recessive O allele gives the red cells the B antigen.
  2. BGroup O, because carrying one O allele is enough to give a person group O.
  3. CGroup A, because the A allele is expressed and the O allele is masked by it.
  4. DGroup AB, because the two different alleles present are always expressed together.
[1 marks]Genetics
State the term for an individual that carries two identical alleles of the same gene.

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Section B

Section B, Question 7

[2 marks]Health and safety
Cultures of bacteria grown in a school laboratory are incubated at about 25 degrees Celsius rather than at 37 degrees Celsius. Explain why.
  1. ABecause 25 degrees Celsius is the optimum temperature at which every kind of bacterium in the dish grows fastest.
  2. BBecause at 37 degrees Celsius the agar jelly melts and the liquid culture runs out of the dish.
  3. CBecause bacteria harmful to people grow best at body temperature, so a lower temperature discourages them.
  4. DBecause the plastic of the culture dish softens above 30 degrees Celsius and lets in airborne spores.
[2 marks]Health and safety
Used bacterial cultures must be disposed of at the end of a practical lesson. Which method is correct?
  1. AThey are put into the ordinary classroom bin once the lids have been taken off the dishes.
  2. BThey are autoclaved or burnt before disposal, so that the microorganisms in them are killed.
  3. CThey are emptied into the laboratory sink and rinsed away with plenty of cold running water.
  4. DThey are left open on the bench overnight so that the air can dry the culture out completely.
[1 marks]Health and safety
Why is a wire inoculating loop passed through a flame both before and after it is used to transfer bacteria?
  1. ATo kill any microorganisms on it, so the culture is not contaminated and nothing escapes.
  2. BTo make the loop hot, so that the bacteria transferred by it grow faster on the agar jelly.
  3. CTo soften the wire, so that it can be bent to fit the shape of the culture dish.
  4. DTo dry the wire completely, so that the drop of culture it carries cannot slide off it.
[1 marks]Health and safety
Name the piece of laboratory equipment that sterilises apparatus and culture media using steam under pressure.

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[2 marks]Health and safety
Explain why a school holds fire drills regularly.
  1. ASo that pupils get used to the smell of burning and are not frightened when a real fire starts.
  2. BSo that the fire alarm is worn in and its bell becomes quieter for the people standing near it.
  3. CSo that the school building is emptied of the smoke that has built up during the term.
  4. DSo that the whole school learns the escape routes and the assembly point and can leave calmly.
[1 marks]Health and safety
During a fire drill a roll call is taken at the assembly point. Why is this done?
  1. ASo that the number of fire extinguishers needed in each block of the school can be worked out.
  2. BSo that the pupils who reached the assembly point first can be praised in the assembly.
  3. CSo that anyone still inside the building is known about at once and can be searched for.
  4. DSo that the classes can be sent back into the building again in the right order.
[1 marks]Health and safety
State one fault in a school's fire precautions that a fire drill can reveal.
  1. AA fire that has started in a store room somewhere and has not yet been noticed by anyone.
  2. BA pupil who has arrived late for school and has not yet signed the register.
  3. CAn emergency exit that is locked or blocked, so it cannot be used to leave the building.
  4. DA classroom window that has been left open at the end of the school day.

Section B, Question 8

[2 marks]Chemicals of life
Water is a good solvent for mineral salts and sugars. Which property of the water molecule explains this?
  1. AThe molecule is neutral in charge, so it takes no part in the reactions going on in the cell.
  2. BThe molecule is polar, so it attracts and separates ions and dissolves other polar molecules.
  3. CThe molecule is very small, so it passes through the spaces between the particles of a solid.
  4. DThe molecule has a high boiling point, so it stays liquid over the whole range of body temperatures.
[2 marks]Chemicals of life
During digestion a molecule of water is used up as each bond between two sugar units in a starch molecule is broken. Name the type of reaction this describes.
  1. AHydrolysis, in which a molecule of water is used to split a large molecule into smaller ones.
  2. BOxidation, in which oxygen is added to a molecule and energy is released from it.
  3. CPhotolysis, in which light energy splits a molecule of water into hydrogen and oxygen.
  4. DCondensation, in which a molecule of water is released as two of the units are joined together.
[1 marks]Chemicals of life
State the role of water in photosynthesis.
  1. AIt is a product only, being released from the leaf through the open stomata as water vapour.
  2. BIt is a raw material, supplying hydrogen for building sugar and releasing oxygen when split.
  3. CIt is a catalyst, speeding the reaction up without itself being used up or changed by it.
  4. DIt is a pigment, absorbing the light energy that drives the reaction inside the chloroplast.
[1 marks]Chemicals of life
Water is one of the products of the process in which glucose reacts with oxygen in a cell to release energy. Name that process.

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[2 marks]Chemicals of life
Which statement describes a use of fat in the mammalian body?
  1. AIt forms the fibres of the muscles, which shorten when the muscle contracts.
  2. BIt is broken down in the liver to make the urea that leaves the body in the urine.
  3. CIt is joined into long chains to build the enzymes that control the reactions of a cell.
  4. DIt forms a layer under the skin that insulates the body and reduces the loss of heat.
[1 marks]Chemicals of life
One gram of lipid releases about twice as much energy as one gram of carbohydrate. Which use of lipids in the body does this suit them for?
  1. AAs the store of energy the body keeps for the long term, since much is held in a small mass.
  2. BAs the store of genetic information, since a dense molecule can hold more of a code.
  3. CAs the substance that carries oxygen in the blood, since it takes up much oxygen per gram.
  4. DAs the main solvent of the blood plasma, since a dense liquid dissolves more substances.
[1 marks]Chemicals of life
Name the class of lipid that forms the bulk of every cell membrane.

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Section B, Question 9

[2 marks]Nutrition
Bacteria in the mouth feed on the sugar left on the teeth after a meal. Which statement explains how this leads to tooth decay?
  1. AThe bacteria ferment the sugar and release an acid, which dissolves the calcium salts of the enamel.
  2. BThe bacteria release an alkali, which softens the enamel and lets the dentine be worn away.
  3. CThe sugar crystallises on the tooth and scratches the enamel away as the person chews.
  4. DThe bacteria feed on the enamel itself, digesting it away as they multiply over the whole surface of the tooth.
[1 marks]Nutrition
Once decay has passed through the enamel and the dentine of a tooth it reaches the pulp cavity. Why does the tooth then become painful?
  1. ABecause the dentine below the enamel is harder than the enamel and cracks apart.
  2. BBecause the pulp cavity holds the nerve endings and the blood vessels of the tooth.
  3. CBecause the pulp cavity is filled with the acid the bacteria have made in the mouth.
  4. DBecause the cement around the root dissolves and the tooth is pushed out of its socket.
[1 marks]Nutrition
Name the sticky film of bacteria and food that builds up over the enamel of a tooth that is not brushed.

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[2 marks]Nutrition
Fluoride in toothpaste helps to prevent tooth decay. Explain how.
  1. AIt kills the nerve in the pulp cavity, so a decaying tooth gives the person no pain at all.
  2. BIt neutralises the sugar in the mouth, so the bacteria are left with nothing to feed on.
  3. CIt coats the tooth in a layer of hard plastic, which the acid made in the mouth cannot pass through.
  4. DIt is taken into the enamel, where it forms a harder salt that resists acid attack better.
[2 marks]Nutrition
Toothpaste contains a fine abrasive and a detergent. Explain how these help to prevent tooth decay.
  1. AThey kill the bacteria of the mouth by drying them out as the person brushes the teeth.
  2. BThey scrub away the plaque and lift the trapped food, so the bacteria lose the sugar they feed on.
  3. CThey dissolve the enamel of the tooth, so that the decayed part of it is washed away by the rinse.
  4. DThey harden into a smooth layer over the enamel, which the bacteria are unable to cling to.
[1 marks]Nutrition
Toothpaste is alkaline. How does this help to protect the enamel of a tooth?
  1. AIt stops saliva from being made, so that the teeth are kept dry between meals.
  2. BIt neutralises the acid made by the plaque bacteria, so the enamel is not dissolved.
  3. CIt neutralises the alkali in the saliva, so that the mouth is left slightly acidic.
  4. DIt reacts with the calcium of the enamel to make a fresh new layer of dentine.
[1 marks]Nutrition
Name the hard deposit that forms when plaque is left on the teeth and hardens, so that a brush can no longer remove it.

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Section B, Question 10

[2 marks]Conservation
Which measure helps to conserve an endangered animal species?
  1. AIntroducing a fast breeding foreign species, which fills the same place in the food web.
  2. BMoving the whole population into one small paddock, so that it is easier to guard.
  3. CSetting aside national parks and game reserves, in which the habitat of the species is protected.
  4. DClearing the woodland around a reserve, so that the animals can be seen and counted much more easily.
[2 marks]Conservation
Explain how sharing the income from tourism with the community around a game reserve helps to conserve an endangered animal.
  1. AThe money is used to fence the animals in so that they cannot breed outside the reserve.
  2. BThe tourists take the place of the animal's natural predators in the food chain of the reserve.
  3. CThe animal becomes worth more to the community alive than dead, so poaching is discouraged.
  4. DThe community can then buy the meat of the animal from the reserve at a lower price.
[1 marks]Conservation
Why are anti-poaching patrols used in a game reserve?
  1. ATo clear the paths through the reserve so that the tourist vehicles can pass along them.
  2. BTo count the young animals that are born in the reserve during the rainy season.
  3. CTo drive the natural predators of the endangered animal out of the reserve at night.
  4. DTo stop the illegal killing of the animals for their horns, skins, tusks or meat.
[1 marks]Conservation
Name the practice of breeding an endangered animal in a zoo or breeding centre and releasing the young into the wild.

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[2 marks]Ecology
Industrial effluent rich in nitrates and phosphates flows into a lake. Explain how this reduces the number of species living in the lake.
  1. AThe phosphates settle and form a hard crust on the bed, which the water plants root into.
  2. BThe salts raise the temperature of the water, so the oxygen dissolved in it bubbles away.
  3. CAlgae bloom over the surface and block the light, then die and decay, using up the oxygen.
  4. DThe nitrates poison the fish directly, so the plants of the lake are left with no predators.
[1 marks]Ecology
Explain why mercury released in industrial effluent is a particular threat to a fish eagle at the top of a food chain.
  1. AIt is not broken down, so it builds up along the food chain and is most concentrated in the top predator.
  2. BIt floats on the surface of the water, so the eagle takes it in through its feathers whenever it dives.
  3. CIt is a mineral salt the eagle needs, so the bird seeks it out and takes in far too much of it.
  4. DIt is broken down quickly in water, so only the animals near the outfall pipe take any of it in.
[1 marks]Ecology
Organic effluent is discharged into a river, and the number of fish downstream falls sharply. Explain why.
  1. AThe effluent coats the river bed and stops the fish from laying their eggs in the gravel.
  2. BThe effluent is a rich food, so the fish eat it and swim away downstream to look for more.
  3. CThe effluent makes the water cloudy, so the fish cannot find their way back upstream.
  4. DBacteria multiply as they break the effluent down and use up the dissolved oxygen.

Section B, Question 11

[2 marks]Ecology
Which statement describes the work of the bacteria that live in the root nodules of a leguminous plant?
  1. AThey fix nitrogen from the air, changing it into compounds the plant can take up.
  2. BThey oxidise the nitrites of the soil into the nitrates that plant roots absorb.
  3. CThey reduce the nitrates of the soil to nitrogen gas, which returns to the air.
  4. DThey break the proteins of dead plants down and release ammonia into the soil.
[2 marks]Ecology
Nitrifying bacteria act on the soil in two steps. Which statement describes what they do?
  1. AThey fix nitrogen gas as ammonia, and then build that ammonia into plant protein.
  2. BThey oxidise ammonia to nitrites, and then oxidise those nitrites to nitrates.
  3. CThey reduce nitrates to nitrites, and then reduce those nitrites to nitrogen gas.
  4. DThey break proteins down to amino acids, and then break those down to ammonia.
[1 marks]Ecology
Which bacteria return nitrogen from the soil to the atmosphere?
  1. APutrefying bacteria, which break the proteins of dead tissue down into ammonia.
  2. BDenitrifying bacteria, which reduce the nitrates of a waterlogged soil to nitrogen gas.
  3. CNitrifying bacteria, which oxidise ammonia to nitrites and those nitrites to nitrates.
  4. DNitrogen fixing bacteria, which change nitrogen gas into compounds in the root nodules.
[1 marks]Ecology
Name the process, carried out by saprophytic bacteria and fungi, in which the proteins of dead plants and animals are broken down and ammonia is released into the soil.

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[2 marks]Ecology
Explain why a field of maize holds far fewer plant species than the woodland it replaced.
  1. AThe maize gives out a gas that stops the seeds of other species from germinating at all.
  2. BThe rainfall over a field is lower than the rainfall over woodland, so fewer species survive.
  3. CThe soil of a cleared field holds no seeds, so nothing can grow in it without being planted.
  4. DThe whole field is planted with a single crop and sprayed with herbicide to kill other plants.
[1 marks]Ecology
Why does natural succession fail to take place in a field that is ploughed and replanted every season?
  1. ABecause the ploughing and replanting clear the ground before new species can establish.
  2. BBecause the soil of a ploughed field holds too much oxygen for wild seeds to germinate.
  3. CBecause the crop plants are always taller than any wild plant that could colonise the field.
  4. DBecause the fertiliser added each season kills the seeds of the crop's own species.
[1 marks]Ecology
State the term for the growing of a single crop species alone over a large area of land.

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Section B, Question 12

[2 marks]Disease
Cholera, measles, ringworm and malaria are all caused in the same general way. Which cause do they share?
  1. AA faulty gene is passed on in the gametes of one or of both of the parents.
  2. BA nutrient is missing from the diet, so a process going on inside the body is left unsupported.
  3. CA pathogen enters the body, multiplies in it and damages the tissues or releases toxins.
  4. DAn organ of the body fails, so a substance that the body needs is no longer made.
[2 marks]Disease
Scurvy, rickets and kwashiorkor are all caused in the same general way. Which cause do they share?
  1. AA pathogen is swallowed with food and then multiplies in the wall of the small intestine.
  2. BAn insect vector injects a parasite into the blood while it is feeding on a person.
  3. CA faulty gene inherited from both parents stops an enzyme from being made.
  4. DA nutrient is missing from the diet over a long period, so a body process is unsupported.
[1 marks]Disease
Which disease is caused by an inherited faulty gene rather than by a pathogen or a poor diet?
  1. ACholera, in which a bacterium in drinking water causes severe watery diarrhoea.
  2. BHaemophilia, in which the blood of the person fails to clot properly after a wound.
  3. CRickets, in which the bones of a child stay soft for want of vitamin D in the diet.
  4. DRingworm, in which a fungus grows in round scaly patches on the skin of the body.
[1 marks]Disease
Name the disease in which the pancreas fails to make enough insulin, so the level of glucose in the blood rises too high.

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[2 marks]Disease
Which statement gives the difference between an infectious disease and a non infectious disease?
  1. AAn infectious disease can be cured by drugs, while a non infectious disease clears up on its own.
  2. BAn infectious disease is caused by a pathogen and passes from one person to another, while a non infectious disease does not.
  3. CAn infectious disease is inherited from the parents, while a non infectious disease is caught from water or from a vector.
  4. DAn infectious disease affects only children, while a non infectious disease affects every age group.
[1 marks]Disease
Name one infectious disease of humans that is spread by drinking water contaminated with faeces.

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[1 marks]Disease
Which of these is a non infectious disease?
  1. AMalaria, which is caused by a protozoan carried from person to person by a mosquito.
  2. BScurvy, which is caused by a long shortage of vitamin C in the diet.
  3. CTuberculosis, which is caused by a bacterium breathed in from the air in droplets.
  4. DCholera, which is caused by a bacterium swallowed in dirty drinking water.

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