Danho
ZIMSEC A Level · 6030/3 · N2023

Biology Paper 3 November 2023

Questions
38
Total marks
140
Syllabus code
6030/3

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Questions
38
Pass mark
23
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Answer every question in the printed order, get marked at the end, then see the answers.

The questions

Question 101

[2 marks]cell membranes, transport and lipids
Endocytosis differs from osmosis in that endocytosis
  1. Amoves water down a water potential gradient, which osmosis does not.
  2. Boccurs only in plant cells, while osmosis occurs in cells generally.
  3. Crequires ATP, while osmosis is a passive process.
  4. Dis a passive process that needs no metabolic energy, unlike osmosis.

Question 102

[1 marks]cell membranes, transport and lipids
Name the type of transport in which the cell surface membrane invaginates and pinches off to form a vesicle enclosing extracellular material.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 103

[2 marks]cell membranes, transport and lipids
Osmosis is the net movement of water molecules from a region of
  1. Ahigher solute concentration to a region of lower solute concentration, through any membrane.
  2. Bhigher water potential to a region of lower water potential, through a partially permeable membrane.
  3. Clower solute potential to a region of higher solute potential, without any membrane present.
  4. Dlower water potential to a region of higher water potential, through a partially permeable membrane.

Question 104

[2 marks]cell membranes, transport and lipids
At high temperature, cholesterol in a cell surface membrane
  1. Acauses the phospholipid tails to pack more closely together, solidifying the membrane.
  2. Brestricts the movement of phospholipids, reducing membrane fluidity.
  3. Cincreases the membrane's permeability to glucose directly.
  4. Dbreaks down to release extra energy for active transport.

Question 105

[2 marks]cell membranes, transport and lipids
Which correctly distinguishes a lysosome from a ribosome?
  1. ABoth a lysosome and a ribosome are bounded by a double membrane and contain hydrolytic enzymes.
  2. BNeither a lysosome nor a ribosome is involved in the digestion or synthesis of cell contents.
  3. CA lysosome is bounded by a single membrane and contains hydrolytic enzymes; a ribosome has no surrounding membrane and is the site of protein synthesis.
  4. DA lysosome has no surrounding membrane and is the site of protein synthesis; a ribosome is bounded by a single membrane and contains hydrolytic enzymes.

Question 106

[1 marks]cell membranes, transport and lipids
Besides glycerol, name the two components that make up a phospholipid molecule.

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Question 107

[2 marks]cell membranes, transport and lipids
A phospholipid molecule is described as amphipathic because it has
  1. Athree hydrophobic fatty acid tails attached to a hydrophilic phosphate head.
  2. Btwo hydrophilic fatty acid tails and one hydrophobic phosphate head.
  3. Cone hydrophilic phosphate head and two hydrophobic fatty acid tails.
  4. Da hydrophilic glycerol backbone and no hydrophobic region at all.

Question 108

[2 marks]cell membranes, transport and lipids
In an aqueous environment, phospholipids spontaneously form a bilayer with
  1. Ano consistent arrangement, since phospholipids distribute randomly through the membrane.
  2. Bhydrophilic heads facing each other in the centre and hydrophobic tails facing the water on both sides.
  3. Chydrophobic tails facing each other in the centre and hydrophilic heads facing the water on both sides.
  4. Dhydrophobic tails facing the water on one side only and hydrophilic heads facing the water on the other.

Question 201

[1 marks]biological molecules and enzymes
Name the type of chemical reaction that forms a glycosidic bond between two monosaccharides, releasing a molecule of water.

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Question 202

[1 marks]biological molecules and enzymes
Name the type of reaction that breaks a glycosidic bond by adding a water molecule across it.

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Question 203

[2 marks]biological molecules and enzymes
The induced fit theory of enzyme action states that
  1. Athe active site is a rigid shape that exactly matches the substrate before any binding occurs.
  2. Bthe active site changes shape as the substrate binds, moulding around it to fit more closely.
  3. Cthe substrate's shape changes permanently to match a fixed, unchanging active site.
  4. Dthe active site forms only after the substrate has already reacted and left the enzyme.

Question 204

[2 marks]biological molecules and enzymes
Which feature of haemoglobin explains the sigmoid shape of its oxygen dissociation curve?
  1. Athe presence of an iron ion in each of its four haem groups.
  2. Bits quaternary structure of four separate, non-interacting polypeptide chains that each bind oxygen completely independently of the others.
  3. Ccooperative binding, in which binding of one oxygen molecule makes further binding easier.
  4. Dits solubility in the aqueous cytoplasm of the red blood cell.

Question 205

[2 marks]biological molecules and enzymes
Glycogen is well suited to its role as a short-term energy store because its highly branched structure
  1. Aprovides many free ends at which enzymes can act simultaneously to release glucose quickly.
  2. Bgives it a fixed chain length that is identical in every glycogen molecule, regardless of the tissue or organism it is found in.
  3. Cmakes it highly soluble, raising the osmotic pressure of the cytoplasm.
  4. Dprevents any enzyme from acting on it under normal conditions.

Question 301

[1 marks]cell division, genetics and selection
Name the structure formed when a pair of homologous chromosomes pairs up (synapses) during prophase I of meiosis.

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Question 302

[2 marks]cell division, genetics and selection
Which statement about homologous chromosomes is correct?
  1. AThey are found only in gametes and never occur in ordinary body cells.
  2. BThey are always identical in the alleles they carry at every locus.
  3. COne is always longer than the other, with the centromere in a different position and often a different overall banding pattern.
  4. DThey carry the same genes in the same sequence, though the alleles present may differ.

Question 303

[2 marks]cell division, genetics and selection
Which event is characteristic of prophase of mitosis?
  1. AThe nuclear envelope breaks down and the nucleolus disappears.
  2. BSister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles.
  3. CA new nuclear envelope re-forms around each set of chromosomes.
  4. DChromosomes line up individually along the equator of the cell.

Question 304

[3 marks]cell division, genetics and selection
A key reason meiosis is necessary in sexually reproducing organisms is that it
  1. Ahalves the chromosome number, so fertilisation restores the diploid number in the offspring.
  2. Bdoubles the chromosome number in each gamete that is produced.
  3. Celiminates the need for fertilisation between two separate gametes.
  4. Dproduces four gametes that are always genetically identical to the parent cell and to each other, with no variation at all.

Question 305

[2 marks]cell division, genetics and selection
Crossing over and independent assortment during meiosis are important because they
  1. Aprevent any genetic variation from arising in the next generation.
  2. Bgenerate new combinations of alleles, increasing genetic variation among offspring.
  3. Ckeep every gamete produced genetically identical to the parent cell.
  4. Doccur only in organisms that reproduce asexually.

Question 306

[2 marks]cell division, genetics and selection
Stabilising selection differs from directional selection in that stabilising selection
  1. Aalways increases the range of variation in a population over successive generations.
  2. Bfavours the intermediate phenotype and selects against both extremes.
  3. Cfavours one phenotypic extreme over both the other extreme and the population mean.
  4. Donly occurs when the environment is changing rapidly in one particular direction.

Question 401

[2 marks]molecular genetics
The genetic code is described as degenerate because
  1. Amore than one codon can specify the same amino acid.
  2. Bit differs completely between unrelated species.
  3. Ccodons overlap so that one base is shared between two codons.
  4. Deach codon can specify more than one amino acid at once.

Question 402

[2 marks]molecular genetics
The genetic code is non-overlapping, which means that
  1. Acodons can be read starting from any one of their three base positions.
  2. Bstart and stop codons are each read twice within every gene.
  3. Cthe same three bases can be read as part of two different codons.
  4. Deach base forms part of only one codon as the sequence is read.

Question 403

[1 marks]molecular genetics
Name the type of codon that signals the end of translation and does not code for an amino acid.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 404

[2 marks]molecular genetics
In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments move toward the positive electrode because
  1. ADNA is negatively charged, due to its phosphate groups.
  2. BDNA is positively charged, due to its sugar-phosphate backbone.
  3. Cthe gel matrix actively pushes fragments toward the positive electrode.
  4. Dan electric current has no real effect on the charge of DNA.

Question 405

[2 marks]molecular genetics
During gel electrophoresis, smaller DNA fragments move further through the gel than larger fragments because
  1. Alarger fragments are specifically repelled by the positive electrode.
  2. Bthe gel acts as a molecular sieve, and smaller fragments pass more easily through its pores.
  3. Csmaller fragments carry a stronger negative charge than larger fragments.
  4. Dsmaller fragments do not get separated by size at all and instead simply dissolve completely into the surrounding buffer solution.

Question 406

[2 marks]molecular genetics
Which correctly distinguishes transcription from translation?
  1. ATranscription requires tRNA and ribosomes; translation requires RNA polymerase.
  2. BBoth transcription and translation take place exclusively inside the nucleus.
  3. CTranscription makes a polypeptide from mRNA at ribosomes; translation makes mRNA from a DNA template in the nucleus.
  4. DTranscription makes mRNA from a DNA template in the nucleus; translation makes a polypeptide from mRNA at ribosomes.

Question 501

[2 marks]energy and mitochondria
Cyclic phosphorylation involves photosystem I and produces
  1. AATP and NADPH, with oxygen released as a by-product.
  2. BATP and oxygen, with the electrons passed permanently to NADP+.
  3. CNADPH only, with no ATP produced at all.
  4. DATP only, with the electrons returned to photosystem I.

Question 502

[1 marks]energy and mitochondria
Name the molecule formed when pyruvate combines with coenzyme A during the link reaction.

Answer this when you sit the paper.

Question 503

[2 marks]energy and mitochondria
During the link reaction, pyruvate is
  1. Aconverted directly into carbon dioxide and water with no enzyme involved.
  2. Bhydrolysed into two separate molecules of lactate.
  3. Cphosphorylated using ATP produced earlier in glycolysis.
  4. Ddecarboxylated and dehydrogenated, reducing NAD+ to NADH.

Question 504

[2 marks]energy and mitochondria
ATP is described as the universal energy currency mainly because it
  1. Areleases a very large, fixed amount of energy in one single burst that cannot be recovered or reused once it has been released.
  2. Bcannot diffuse through the cytoplasm to reach where energy is needed.
  3. Creleases energy in small, manageable amounts and can be readily regenerated from ADP and phosphate.
  4. Dis found only in animal cells, never in plants or microorganisms.

Question 505

[2 marks]energy and mitochondria
Mitochondrial DNA is significant in evolutionary and forensic studies mainly because it is
  1. Ainherited only from the father, through the sperm's mitochondria.
  2. Babsent from the egg cell and only added to the zygote after fertilisation.
  3. Cidentical in sequence to nuclear DNA from the same organism.
  4. Dinherited only from the mother, making it useful for tracing maternal lineage.

Question 601

[2 marks]reproduction and classification
During the fertilisation stage of IVF,
  1. Asperm are collected from the testes and left to mature in culture before use.
  2. Beggs collected from the ovaries are combined with sperm in a dish, outside the body.
  3. Can embryo is transferred into the uterus before fertilisation has occurred.
  4. Dfertilisation occurs naturally inside the ovary itself, without any laboratory intervention or handling of the egg.

Question 602

[2 marks]reproduction and classification
In the embryo transfer stage of IVF, the embryo is
  1. Aplaced directly into the ovary to continue its development there.
  2. Bpassed by catheter through the cervix into a hormonally prepared uterus.
  3. Cfrozen permanently and never subsequently transferred into a uterus.
  4. Dimplanted directly into the fallopian tube through a surgical incision.

Question 603

[3 marks]reproduction and classification
Heterozygotes for the sickle-cell allele are more common in malarial regions because they
  1. Ahave red blood cells that sickle and are removed along with the parasite inside, giving some protection against severe malaria.
  2. Bpass the sickle-cell allele only to their daughters, never to sons.
  3. Csuffer from severe sickle-cell anaemia, which itself deters mosquito bites.
  4. Dare completely immune to malaria and are never infected by the parasite.

Question 604

[2 marks]reproduction and classification
A socio-economic benefit of ferns (phylum Filicinophyta) is that
  1. Athey are the primary source of antibiotics used in modern medicine.
  2. Bthey are entirely immune to being classified as agricultural weeds.
  3. Cthey are grown commercially as a staple cereal crop worldwide.
  4. Dtheir fossilised relatives contributed to the formation of coal deposits.

Question 701

[2 marks]transport, nervous coordination and conservation
The wall of an artery contains a thick tunica media mainly because it needs to
  1. Awithstand and smooth out the high pressure pulses generated by the heart.
  2. Ballow valves to form at regular intervals along its length.
  3. Cincrease the width of the lumen so as to reduce the blood pressure carried within the vessel.
  4. Dprevent any elastic recoil from occurring between heartbeats.

Question 702

[2 marks]transport, nervous coordination and conservation
Unlike an artery, a vein has
  1. Aa thicker wall overall and a narrower lumen.
  2. Bno lumen at all, since blood flows through solid tissue.
  3. Cvalves along its length and a thinner wall relative to its lumen.
  4. Da thicker tunica media containing more smooth muscle.

Question 703

[2 marks]transport, nervous coordination and conservation
The cell body of a sensory neuron is located
  1. Ain a ganglion, off to one side of the axon, outside the central nervous system.
  2. Binside the effector organ that the neuron eventually supplies.
  3. Cwithin the grey matter of the central nervous system.
  4. Dat the neuromuscular junction, next to the effector it supplies.

Question 704

[2 marks]transport, nervous coordination and conservation
A common source of conflict between conservationists and crop farmers is that
  1. Aconservationists routinely encourage farmers to clear more natural habitat for farmland.
  2. Bfarmers are never affected in any way by restrictions on protected areas.
  3. Cwild animals raiding crops cause direct economic loss to farmers.
  4. Dprotected predators are legally required to be relocated onto farmland.

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